CCNA4: Final Exam

Review Notes, v. 3.1
1.1.1 Private addressing

1.1.2 Major NAT and PAT features
Dynamic NAT is designed to map a private IP address to a public address. Any IP address from a pool of public IP addresses is assigned to a network host. Overloading, or Port Address Translation (PAT), maps multiple private IP addresses to a single public IP address. Multiple addresses can be mapped to a single address because each private address is tracked by a port number.
1.1.3 Configuring NAT and PAT
The access list must permit only those addresses that are to be translated. Remember that there is an implicit “deny all” at the end of each access list.

1.1.4 Configuring DHCP
- Typically, a DHCP server will be configured to assign much more than an IP address. Other IP configuration values such as the default gateway can be set from the DHCP configuration mode. Using the default-router command sets the default gateway.
- A default router must be defined for clients
2.1.1 WAN devices
- For digital lines, a channel service unit (CSU) and a data service unit (DSU) are required. The two are often combined into a single piece of equipment, called the CSU/DSU. The CSU/DSU may also be built into the interface card in the router.
- A modem is needed if the local loop is analog rather than digital.
- A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
2.1.2 WAN Standards
WANs use the OSI reference model, but focus mainly on Layer 1 and Layer 2.
2.2.1 ISDN
- Another common application of ISDN is to provide additional capacity as needed on a leased line connection.
- ISDN is also used as a backup in the case of a failure of the leased line.

I will post chapter 3,4 on wednesday. See you soon. if you like this post, you can bookmarks this site. and get up date.

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CCNA 4 Final

1. A network administrator is asked to design a system to allow simultaneous access to the Internet for 250 users. The ISP for this network can only supply five public IPs. What can be used to accomplish this task?
routable translation
dynamic translation
static translation
• port address translation

2. The LAN attached to the Ethernet interface of the Raleigh router shown in the graphic is addressed with private IP addresses. If one public IP is assigned to the company, which commands could be used in a configuration that allows all devices with private IPs in this network to access the Internet? (Choose two.)
• ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial0 overload
ip nat outside source list 1 interface serial0 overload
ip nat inside serial0
• ip nat inside source list 1 pool Raleigh overload
ip nat inside Raleigh overload
ip inside nat source list 1 interface serial0 Raleigh

3. The command output shown in the graphic was taken from a Cisco 806 broadband router. Which kind of address translation is in effect on this router?
static
dynamic
• overload
private
public

4. Which of the following IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)
• 192.168.146.0/22
172.10.25.0/16
• 172.31.0.0/16
20.0.0.0/8
• 10.172.92.8/29

5. How will data be transmitted from the router to the ISP if the router has the two links shown in the graphic?
Both links will transmit data at the same rate.
1544 bits can be transmitted simultaneously from the router over the T1 line.
• Both links will transmit bits one by one.
The 56K link will transmit a maximum of 53 bits at the same time.

6. Which statements about DHCP are true? (Choose three.)
DHCP uses TCP.
DHCP uses UDP.
• DHCP sends messages to the server on port 67.
DHCP sends messages to the server on port 68.
• DHCP sends messages to the client on port 67.
• DHCP sends messages to the client on port 68.

7. Which command would be used to exclude the IP address 192.168.24.5 from the DHCP address pool on a router?
Router(dhcp-config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
Router# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
Router(config-excluded)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router(config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
Router(config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5
Router(dhcp-config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5

8. The WAN connection for a nationwide company with 250 offices must support constant connections to core layer services for file sharing, and occasional Internet access. Which combination of WAN technologies will meet these needs with minimum expense?
Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ATM for file server access
Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ISDN for file server access
ISDN for Internet access and X.25 for file server access
• ISDN for Internet access and Frame Relay PVC for file server access

9. Which command would produce the output shown in the graphic?
show ip dhcp server statistics
show ip dhcp binding
• debug ip dhcp server events
debug ip dhcp binding

10. Which of the following devices is used to establish the communications link between the customer equipment and the local loop for digital lines?
terminal adapter
modem
• CSU/DSU
PBX switch
ISDN switch
Frame Relay Switch

11. Which of the following statements are true about Frame Relay? (Choose three.)
Frame Relay operation is defined by a series of ISO standards.
• Frame Relay is a packet switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.
Frame Relay only supports point-to-point connections.
• A router can be considered as data terminal equipment (DTE) in a frame relay system.
Frame Relay is a cell switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.
• Frame Relay networks use a subset of the HDLC protocol to carry information.

12. ITU-T Q.921 specifies the use of which protocol for sending control and signaling messages between the router and the ISDN switch?
HDLC
IPCP
LAPB
• LAPD
NCP
SS7

13. A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a minimum data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice?
X.25
DSL
• ATM
ISDN BRI
ISDN PRI

14. Which statement explains why basic DSL is an unpopular WAN connectivity choice for enterprise computer departments that support home users?
DSL offers insufficient bandwidth to home users.
DSL requires the installation of new cables, which is not always possible for home users.
DSL dialup connection time is too slow for business use.
• DSL has limited geographical availability.

15. When planning simple WAN connections for a small company, which feature of the three layer hierarchical model makes it a good choice for the WAN topology.
It provides for redundancy.
• It allows for easy WAN expansion in case of company growth.
It is less expensive.
It provides faster connection time.
It provides less latency and jitter.

16. Which of the following terms describes a device that will put data on the local loop?
DLCI
CO
• DCE
DTE
PRI
BRI

17. Which of the following are supported by a BRI interface on a router? (Choose two.)
• Two independent channels that can carry analog data with a bandwidth of 64 KHz.
A single 128 Kbps digital bearer channel.
Two multiplexed channels carrying digital data.
A single 64 Kbps signaling channel.
A multiplexed data channel that can only handle SS7 information.
• A 16 Kbps delta channel used for signaling purposes.

18. A network administrator has been asked to provide the network in the United States with an ISDN WAN link. The router available to provide the WAN connection is a non-modular Cisco router with two serial connections. What must be done to adapt one of the serial interfaces of this router for the ISDN connection?
Nothing. The router is already suitable.
Purchase a BRI WAN interface card to install in the router.
Purchase a U interface to install in the router.
• Purchase a TA/NT1 device to install on the router.

19 (NEED ANSWERS!!!)Which of the following is a function of a DCE device?
determines the next-hop address for a packet
• multiplexes signals from several sources
adapts information for use on a service provider's network
used to directly connect two DTEs to simulate a WAN network

20. Why would data frames be discarded in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
The frame contains an incorrect IP address.
• An error has been detected in computing the frame check sequence.
There is not enough bandwidth dedicated for the data contained in the frame.
Data is transmitted at a rate greater than the access speed.
• The frame contains an incorrect DLCI.

21. Which of the following are commonly used as Data Communications Equipment? (Choose two.)
• modem
router
• CSU/DSU
ISDN Switch
Frame Relay Switch

22. Which of the following LCP options can be configured for PPP? (Choose three.)
• CHAP
• Stacker
IPCP
CDPCP
• Multilink

23. Which command will provide for CHAP authentication if the hostname on a challenging router is tampa with a password of florida?
• username tampa password florida
username tampa florida
hostname tampa password florida
hostname tampa florida

24. Which of the following describes the PAP protocol? (Choose two.)
• sends unencrypted authentication passwords
performs a three-way handshake
• allows repeated login attempts
uses the remote router hostname to verify identity
sends a random challenge throughout the session

25. Why was NAT created? (Choose two.)
to create firewalls on routers
• to conserve IP addresses
to translate domain names into IP addresses
to map network addresses to the corresponding data link address
• to hide internal addresses from external devices

26. An ISDN router is configured for DDR as shown in the graphic to provide Internet connectivity for the company. Immediately after a user in the company attempts opens a web browser to connect to the Internet, another user in the company tries to download a file using FTP. What will happen? (Choose two.)
• The user that opened the browser will connect to the Internet because the DDR link will consider this traffic interesting.
The Internet user will be disconnected because the FTP data will cause the DDR link to shut down.
The DDR link will allow the FTP traffic because it is interesting.
The DDR link will not allow the FTP traffic because it is not interesting.
The FTP connection will fail because the DDR link is already in use for the Internet connection.
• The FTP connection will succeed because the web user already opened the DDR link.

27. Which command configures the SPID on the first B channel of an ISDN interface?
Router(config)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]
Router(config)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]
Router(config-if)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]
• Router(config-if)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]

28. What does the command debug isdn q921 display?
exchange of call setup and teardown messages
PAP and CHAP authentication traffic
• Layer 2 messages on the D channel
protocol errors and statistics
Layer 2 messages on the B channel

29. When PPP authentication is enabled, which of the following may be checked before establishing a PPP link between two devices? (Choose two.)
the enable password on the remote device
the ip host configuration on the remote device
• the security server database for the username and password of the remote device
the hostname and enable password on the local device
• the local database for the username and password of the remote device

30. How many separate B channel circuits can be provisioned on a PRI interface that uses a T1 line for connectivity?
2
16
• 23
24
30
128

31. Which operating systems support multiuser capability? (Choose three.)
• Linux
Windows 98
Windows ME
• Windows XP
• Windows 2000

32. What is placed in the address field of a frame that will travel from the DC office of ABC company to the Orlando office?
MAC address of the Orlando router
MAC address of the DC router
192.168.1.25
192.168.1.26
DLCI 100
• DLCI 200

33. What does a DLCI of 0 indicate about a frame? (Choose two.)
This is the first data frame sent by the router.
• This is a management frame.
The encapsulation type is Cisco.
The encapsulation type is IETF.
• The LMI type is Ansi or q933a.
The LMI type is Cisco.

34. Which of the following protocols can be used to encapsulate data traffic sent from a router BRI interface? (Choose two.)
Link Access Protocol - Data
• High-Level Data Link Control
Logical Link Control
Serial Data Link Control
• Point to Point protocol
Binary Synchronous Control protocol

35. An administrator consoled into the Jelly router needs to telnet to the Butter router. What DLCI will the Jelly router place in the frame to perform this operation?
110
115
220
• 225

36. Which commands can be used to identify which DLCIs are active? (Choose two.)
• show frame-relay map
show frame-relay lmi
• show frame-relay pvc
show frame-relay interface
show interfaces
show ip route

37. A technician is testing the functionality of a recently installed router. The technician is unable to ping the serial interface of a remote router. The technician executes the show interface serial0/0 command on the local router and sees the following line in the output:
Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down
What are possible causes for this command output? (Choose three.)
• remote CSU/DSU failure
serial cable missing
interface shutdown
• keepalives not being sent
• clocking signal missing

38. A router needs to forward a message received from a host. How does the router identify the correct VC to forward the message? (Choose two.)
The router forwards the frame to all ports in the network and learns the address from the reply frame.
The destination host IP address is embedded in the DLCI.
• The router searches Inverse ARP tables for maps of DLCIs to IP addresses.
• A table of static mappings can be searched.
The router broadcasts a request for the required IP address.

39. Which of the following statements regarding point-to-point subinterfaces are true? (Choose two.)
A point-to-point subinterface on one router must be connected to a similar subinterface on a remote router.
Each point-to-point subinterface connection is configured with its own subnet.
The DLCIs configured on the remote and local routers must be the same for the PVC.
LMI frames are not transmitted through a subinterface.
Routing updates in point-to-point networks are not subject to the split-horizon rule.

40. Which of the following can be concluded from the router output displayed in the graphic? (Choose two.)
• The local DLCI number of this PVC is 100.
The interface has been configured for subinterfaces and this map is for subinterface 0.
• Inverse ARP has determined the remote ip address as 10.140.1.1.
The LMI type is ANSI (0x64).
There is currently no congestion on the link.

41. Which of the following are functions of the Local Management Interface used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose three.)
• exchange information about the status of virtual circuits
map DLCIs to network addresses
• provide flow control
provide error notification
provide congestion notification
• send keepalive packets to verify operation of the PVC

42. Which of the following describe functions of the Point-to-Point protocol with regards to the OSI model? (Choose three.)
PPP uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices.
PPP operates at all layers of the OSI model.
• PPP uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression.
• PPP provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols.
PPP uses Network Control Protocols (NCP) to test and maintain connectivity between devices.
• PPP can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces.

43. Which of the following describes the CHAP protocol? (Choose three.)
• exchanges a random challenge number during the session to verfiy identity
sends authentication password to verify identity
• prevents transmission of login information in plain text
• disconnects the PPP session if authentication fails
initiates a two-way handshake

44. Which of the following switching types will allow the communication devices in the provider's network to be shared and only allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer?
circuit-switched
• packet-switched
frame-switched
dedicated-switched lines
lease-switched

45. How does Frame Relay technology process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)
• Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.
It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.
FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.
• The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.
The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.

46. Which of the following describes the WAN devices and cabling shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
A null-modem cable is used between RouterD and DeviceC for connectivity.
A DB-25 or DB-9 serial cable is connected to interface S0/0 of RouterA.
• DeviceB and DeviceC are DCE devices.
• The same encoding scheme must be used by DeviceB and DeviceC.
A synchronous serial connection exists between DeviceB and DeviceC.

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CCNA 4 Final New version

1. Identify the factors that contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN. (Choose three.)
• improper placement of enterprise level servers
• addition of hosts to a physical segment
replacement of hubs with workgroup switches
• increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications
migration to full-duplex Ethernet within the LAN

2. Which of the following are examples of TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose three.)
• a terminal emulation protocol that supports remote console connections with various network devices
a protocol created by IBM that makes it easier for mainframes to connect to remote offices
• a protocol responsible for transporting electronic mail on TCP/IP networks and the Internet
a protocol that controls the rate at which data is sent to another computer
• a protocol that exchanges network management information between a network device and a management console

3. Which of the following eliminates switching loops?
hold-down timers
poison reverse
• spanning tree protocol
time to live
split horizon protocol

4. The show cdp neighbors command is a very useful network troubleshooting tool. Using the output in the graphic, select the statements that are true. (Choose two.)
CDP operates at the network layer of the OSI model.
• The output of this command displays information about directly connected Cisco devices only.
The switch is attached to the SanJose1 FastEthernet0/21 interface.
SanJose1 is running CDP version 12.0.
SanJose1 has two fully operational, cdp-enabled Cisco switches directly connected to it.
• SanJose2 is a 2600 series router running several routed protocols

5. A network administrator can ping the Denver router, but gets a 'Password Required but None Set' message when trying to connect remotely via Telnet. Which command sequence must be applied to the Denver router to allow remote access?


Router(config)# line console 0
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
• Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco

Router(config)# line virtual terminal
Router(config-line)# enable login
Router(config-line)# password cisco

Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# enable secret
Router(config-line)# password cisco
Router(config)# enable secret cisco
Router(config)# enable cisco

6. Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?
low processor overhead
poison reverse
routing loops
split horizon
• shortest-path first calculations

7. A router does not load its configuration after a power failure. After running the show startup-configuration command, the adminstrator finds that the original configuration is intact. What is the cause of this problem?
The configuration register is set for 0x2100.
The configuration register is set for 0x2101.
The configuration register is set for 0x2102.
• The configuration register is set for 0x2142.
Boot system commands are not configured.
Flash memory is empty causing the router to bypass the configuration in NVRAM
Nederst på formularen

8. Which commands are used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose three.)
• show ip interface
show ip route
show processes
• show running-config
show cdp neighbor
• show access-lists

9. Which of the following are required when creating a standard access control list? (Choose two.)
destination address and wildcard mask
• source address and wildcard mask
subnet mask and wildcard mask
access list number between 100 and 199 or 2000 and 2699
• access list number between 1 and 99 or 1300 to 1999

10. Which of the following are keywords that can be used in an access control list to replace a dotted decimal wildcard mask? (Choose two.)
most
• host
all
• any
some
sum

11. Refer to the diagram. All ports on Switch A are in the Sales VLAN and all ports on Switch B are in the Accounting VLAN. How many broadcast domains and how many collision domains are shown? (Choose two).
3 collision domains
• 3 broadcast domains
5 broadcast domains
• 9 collision domains
10 collision domains
13 collision domains

12. Refer to the graphic. Using the most efficient IP addressing scheme and VLSM, which address can be configured on one of the serial interfaces?
192.168.16.63/27
192.168.16.158/27
192.168.16.192/27
192.168.16.113/30
192.168.16.145/30
• 192.168.16.193/30

13. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
• prevents Layer 2 loops
prevents routing loops on a router
creates smaller collision domains
creates smaller broadcast domains
allows Cisco devices to exchange routing table updates

14. What is the purpose of a loopback address when using the OSPF routing protocol?
activates the OSPF neighboring process
• ensures a persistent router ID for the OSPF process
provides a backdoor for connectivity during the convergence process
streamlines and speeds up the convergence process

15. Which statement is true regarding states of the IEEE 802.1d Spanning Tree Protocol?
Ports are manually configured to be in the forwarding state.
• Ports listen and learn before going into the forwarding state.
Ports must be blocked before they can be placed in the disabled state.
It takes 15 seconds for a port to go from blocking to forwarding

16. Which sequence of commands is used to configure a loopback address on a router?

Router1(config)# interface loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1
Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0

Router1(config-if)# loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1
Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0

Router1(config-if)# loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

• Router1(config)# interface loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.255

17. Which routing protocols are classful and do not support VLSM? (Choose two.)
EIGRP
OSPF
• RIP v1
RIP v2
• IGRP

18. Refer to the graphic. Two switches are connected together through a trunk port. SW2 displays the message shown. Which of the following will solve the duplex mismatch?

SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW1(config-if)# duplex full

SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW1(config-if)# full-duplex

• SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW2(config-if)# duplex full

SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW2(config-if)# full-duplex

19. Refer to the graphic. Two routers have been configured to use EIGRP. Packets are not being forwarded between the two routers. What could be the problem?
EIGRP does not support VLSM.
The routers were not configured to monitor neighbor adjacency changes.
The default bandwidth was used on the routers.
• An incorrect IP address was configured on a router interface.

20. According to the the provided router output, which of the following statements is true regarding PPP operation?
Only the link-establishment phase completed successfully.
Only the network-layer phase completed successfully.
Neither the link-establishment phase nor the the network-layer phase completed successfully.
• Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully

21. Frame Relay is configured over a point-to-point connection between two routers. The output of the show frame-relay pvc command indicates that the status of this PVC is inactive. Which of the following devices could be the source of the problem? (Choose two.)
local router
local Frame Relay switch
• remote router
• remote Frame Relay switch
R3 has the following configuration:
R3# show running-config
--some output text omitted--
interface serial0/0
bandwidth 128
ip address 192.168.11.2 255.255.255.0
encapsulation frame-relay
frame-relay map ip 192.168.11.2 30 broadcast

22. After the command R3# debug frame-relay packet is executed, a ping is issued from R3 to R1 but is unsuccessful. Based on the output of the debug command shown in the graphic and the router configuration, what might be problem?
• No clock rate assigned.
There is an incorrect DLCI number in the map statement.
An incorrect IP address exists in the map statement.
The encapsulation command is missing the broadcast keyword

23. Which statements are true regarding the Frame Relay LMI? (Choose three.)
• The LMI provides a virtual circuit (VC) status mechanism.
The LMI type must always be manually configured.
The available LMI types are NI1, DMS100 and 5ESS.
The LMI types supported by Cisco routers are CISCO and IETF.
• The LMI type configured on the router must match the one used on the Frame Relay switch.
• The LMI uses reserved DLCIs to exchange messages between the DTE and DCE

24. Which statement describes the process that occurs in Network Address Translation (NAT) overloading?
• Multiple private IP addresses are mapped to one public IP address.
The number of usable addresses assigned to a company is divided into smaller manageable groups.
A pool of IP addresses are mapped to one or more MAC addresses.
The router acts as a DHCP server and assigns multiple public IP addresses for each private IP address configured

25. Which two statements are true about the committed information rate on a Frame Relay link? (Choose two.)
The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs must be less than the port speed.
The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs must equal the port speed.
• The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs can be greater than the port speed.
• The DE bit will be set on frames that are transmitted in excess of the CIR.
Frames that are transmitted at greater than the CIR will be discarded at the source.
It is impossible to transmit frames at a rate in excess of the CIR

26. Which of the following commands would be used to troubleshoot the processing of call control functions such as call setup, signaling, and termination?
show interface bri0/0
show isdn active
debug isdn q921
• debug isdn q931
debug ppp negotiation
debug ppp authentication

27. Which of the following statements are true regarding PPP? (Choose three.)
• PPP can use synchronous and asynchronous physical media.
PPP can only be used between two Cisco devices.
PPP carries packets from several network layer protocols in LCPs.
• PPP uses LCPs to establish, configure, and test the data link connection.
• PPP uses LCPs to agree on format options such as authentication, compression, and error detection

28. A network administrator is evaluating authentication protocols for a PPP link. Which of the following reasons might lead to the selection of CHAP over PAP as the authentication protocol? (Choose three.)
establishes identities with a two-way handshake
• uses a three-way authentication periodically during the session to reconfirm identities
control by the remote host of the frequency and timing of login events
• transmits login information in encrypted format
• uses an unpredictable variable challenge value to prevent playback attacks
makes authorized network administrator intervention a requirement to establish each session

29. Why are static routes often used with ISDN DDR?
They are more stable than dynamic routing protocols.
They are more accurate than dynamic routing protocols because they are put in by a network administrator.
They are easier to modify when a faster technology is installed.
• They prevent the unnecessary activation of the link

30. Assuming that four bits have been borrowed to make subnets, identify the subnet network addresses. (Choose three.)
192.168.14.8
• 192.168.14.16
192.168.14.24
• 192.168.14.32
192.168.14.148
• 192.168.14.208

31. A switch can be configured for three different forwarding modes based on how much of a frame is received before the forwarding process begins. Each of the numbered arrows in the accompanying graphic signifies the point in a frame where a particular forwarding mode will begin. Which one of the following groups reflects the sequence of forwarding modes signified by the numbered arrows?
• 1) fast forward
2) fragment free
3) store-and-forward

1) store-and-forward
2) fragment free
3) fast forward

1) fragment free
2) fast forward
3) store-and-forward

1) fast forward
2) store-and-forward
3) fragment free

32. Which of the following commands will display a communication message on a router before the router prompt is shown?
• banner motd * Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW. *
message Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW.
banner * Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW. *
hostname (Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW.)
Øverst på formularen

33. A router needs to be added to OSPF area 0. Which commands should be used to enable OSPF on the router? (Choose two.)
RouterA(config)# router ospf
• RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
• RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0

34. Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands will configure router A for OSPF?
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0

• router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0

router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
network 192.168.10.192 255.255.255.252

router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0 area 0

35. Which of the following protocols would exchange information between routers to share network addresses and their metrics?
TCP
• RIP
CSMA/CD
Ethernet

36. Which ISDN device can be directly connected to a two-wire local loop in a North American city?
a router with a serial interface
a router with an S/T interface
• a router with a U interface
an ISDN terminal adapter

37. The output of the show ip interfaces brief command indicates that Serial0 is up but the line protocol is down. Which of the following are possible causes for the line protocol being in the down state? (Choose two.)
The clock rate is not set on the DTE.
An incorrect default gateway is set on the router.
A network is missing from the routing protocol configuration.
• The encapsulation on the Serial0 interface is incorrect.
• Keepalives are not being sent by the remote device

38. Which of the following is a characteristics of TCP? (Choose two.)
• data transport reliability
best path determination
• establishing, maintaining, and terminating virtual circuits
encapsulation of packets in a data frame with source and destination MAC addresses
best-effort datagram delivery

39. Which statement is true regarding the command ip route 192.168.7.24 255.255.255.248 192.168.7.9? (Choose two.)
• A packet destined for host 192.168.7.30 will be forwarded to address 192.168.7.9.
192.168.7.9 is the destination network for this route.
192.168.7.24 is the next-hop router in this command.
This command is issued from the interface configuration mode.
• This command is used to define a static route

40. Which of the following application layer protocols use TCP? (Choose three.)
• SMTP
• FTP
SNMP
• HTTP
TFTP
DHCP

41. Which terms refer to Frame Relay congestion management mechanisms? (Choose three.)
• BECN
DLCI
• DE
• FECN
LMI
Inverse ARP

42. Which of the following router commands will verify that a path exists to a destination network?
Router# show ip interfaces brief
• Router# show ip route
Router# show cdp neighbors
Router# show running-config
Router# show protocols

43. When EIGRP is configured on a router, which table of DUAL information is used to calculate the best route to each destination router?
router table
• topology table
DUAL table
CAM table
ARP table

44. Refer to the graphic. Routers A and B have EIGRP configured and automatic summarization has been disabled on both routers. Which of the following commands is used on router A to summarize the attached routes, and to which interface is this command applied? (Choose two)
• ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
ip area-range eigrp 1 192.168.10.80 255.255.255.224
summary-address 192.168.10.80 0.0.0.31
ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63
• serial interface on router A
serial interface on router B

45. A router with two LAN interfaces, two WAN interfaces, and two loopback interfaces configured is operating with OSPF as its routing protocol. What is used by the OSPF process to assign the router ID?
the IP address of the interface configured with priority 0
the OSPF area ID configured on the interface with the highest IP address
• the loopback with the highest IP address configured
the highest IP address on the LAN interfaces
the highest IP address configured on the WAN interfaces

46. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.56 255.255.255.224, on which subnetwork does this address reside?
172.0.0.0
172.16.134.0
• 172.16.134.32
172.16.134.48
172.16.134.47
172.16.134.63

47. Which commands show when the last IGRP routing update was received? (Choose two.)
• Router# show ip protocols
Router# show version
Router# show interfaces
Router# show ip updates
• Router# show ip route

48. When using access control lists to filter traffic, which of the following is used to track multiple sessions occurring between hosts?
IP addresses
subnet masks
• port numbers
routed protocols
routing protocols
interfaces

49. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?
This is a useable host address.
This is a broadcast address.
• This is a network address.
This is not a valid address

50. The company network shown in the drawing has to be subnetted. The company has leased the Class C IP address of 200.1.2.0. Which of the following network addresses and masks would be appropriate for one of the subnetworks?
200.1.2.96 255.255.255.192
• 200.1.2.160 255.255.255.224
200.1.2.80 255.255.255.224
200.1.2.32 255.255.255.240

Read More

CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 6 (100%)

1. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)

  channel widths
  modulation techniques

2. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?

  pre-shared key

3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)

  allocate an additional channel
  subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment

4. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statement describes the situation observed by the technician?

  Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.

5. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator has decided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the result of this solution?

  The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN client software.

6. Data confidentiality through a VPN is achieved through which two methods? (Choose two.)

  encryption
  encapsulation

7. Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption protocols? (Choose three.)
  AES
  DES
  RSA

8. What two protocols provide data authentication and integrity for IPsec? (Choose two.)
  AH
  ESP

9. A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?

  DSL

10. What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)

  authentication
  data confidentiality
  data integrity

11. A company is using WiMAX to provide access for teleworkers. What home equipment must the company provide at the teleworker's site?

  a WiMAX receiver

12. Which two methods could an administrator use to authenticate users on a remote access VPN? (Choose two.)
  digital certificates
  smart cards

13. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)

  local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)
  user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO

14. Which two features can be associated with the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX) telecommunication technology? (Choose two.)

  covers areas as large as 7,500 square kilometers
  connects directly to the Internet through high-bandwidth connections

15. Refer to the exhibit. All users have a legitimate purpose and the necessary persissions to access the Corporate network. Based on the topology shown, which locations are able to establish VPN connectivity with the Corporate network?

  All locations can support VPN connectivity.

16. Which statement describes cable?

  Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and upstream frequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.

17. Which two protocols can be used to encapsulate traffic that is traversing a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)

  IPsec
  PPTP

18. Refer to the exhibit. A teleworker is connected over the Internet to the HQ Office. What type of secure connection can be established between the teleworker and the HQ Office?

  a remote-access VPN

19. Refer to the exhibit. A VPN tunnel has been established between the HQ Office and the Branch Office over the public Internet. Which three mechanisms are required by the devices on each end of the VPN tunnel to protect the data from being intercepted and modified? (Choose three.)

  The two parties must establish a secret key used by encryption and hash algorithms.
  The two parties must agree on the encryption algorithm to be used over the VPN tunnel.
  The devices must be authenticated before the communication path is considered secure.

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CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 5 (100%)

1. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?
  Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.

2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)

  protocol suite
  source address
  destination address

3. Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?

  It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.

4 .Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)

  Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
  Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.

5. Where should a standard access control list be placed?

  close to the destination

6. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)

  An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.
  A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.
  Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list.

7. Refer to the exhibit. How will Router1 treat traffic matching the time-range requirement of EVERYOTHERDAY?

  Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.

8. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any

  FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
  Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.

9. Which two statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)

  The last 3 bits will be ignored
  The first 29 bits will be checked

10. Refer to the exhibit. When creating an extended ACL to deny traffic from the 192.168.30.0 network destined for the Web server 209.165.201.30, where is the best location for applying the ACL?

  R3 Fa0/0 inbound

11. How do Cisco standard ACLs filter traffic?

  by source IP address

12. Which three items must be configured before a dynamic ACL can become active on a router? (Choose three.)

  extended ACL
  authentication
  Telnet connectivity

13. A network administrator needs to allow traffic through the firewall router for sessions that originate from within the company network, but the administrator must block traffic for sessions that originate outside the network of the company. What type of ACL is most appropriate?

  reflexive

14. Which statement about standard ACLs is true?

  They should be placed as close to the destination as possible.

15. Which benefit does an extended ACL offer over a standard ACL?

  In addition to the source address, an extended ACL can also filter on destination address, destination port, and source port.

16. The following commands were entered on a router:

Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24
Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any

The ACL is correctly applied to an interface. What can be concluded about this set of commands?

  Wildcard 0.0.0.0 is assumed

17. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator wishes to block web traffic from 192.168.1.50 from reaching the default port of the web service on 192.168.3.30. To do this, the access control list name is applied inbound on the router R1 LAN interface. After testing the list, the administrator has noted that the web traffic remains successful. Why is web traffic reaching the destination?

  The range of source addresses specified in line 10 does not include host 192.168.1.50.

18. Which feature will require the use of a named ACL rather than a numbered ACL?

  the ability to edit the ACL and add additional statements in the middle of the list without removing and re-creating the list

19. By default, how is IP traffic filtered in a Cisco router?

  permitted in and out of all interfaces

20. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator applied an ACL outbound on S0/0/0 on router R1. Immediately after the administrator did so, the users on network 172.22.30.0/24 started complaining that they have intermittent access to the resources available on the server on the 10.10.0.0/16 network. On the basis of the configuration that is provided, what is the possible reason for the problem?

  The ACL permits the IP packets for users on network 172.22.30.0/24 only during a specific time range.

21. Interface s0/0/0 already has an IP ACL applied inbound. What happens when the network administrator attempts to apply a second inbound IP ACL?

  The second ACL is applied to the interface, replacing the first.

22. A technician is creating an ACL and needs a way to indicate only the subnet 172.16.16.0/21. Which combination of network address and wildcard mask will accomplish the desired task?

  172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255

23. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about ACL 110 if ACL 110 is applied in the inbound direction on S0/0/0 of R1?

  It will permit any TCP traffic that originated from network 172.22.10.0/24 to return inbound on the S0/0/0 interface.

24. Refer to the exhibit. ACL 120 is configured inbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1, but the hosts on network 172.11.10.0/24 are able to telnet to network 10.10.0.0/16. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be done to remedy the problem?
  Apply the ACL outbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1.

25. Which two statements are true regarding named ACLs? (Choose two.)

  Names can be used to help identify the function of the ACL.
  Certain complex ACLs, such as reflexive ACLs, must be defined with named ACLs.

Read More

CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 4 (100%)

1. What is the best defense for protecting a network from phishing exploits?

  Schedule training for all users.

2. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)

  It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
  It communicates consensus and defines roles.
  It defines how to handle security incidents.

3. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)

  The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.
  The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.

4. Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are configured on the router?

  The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the router to prevent security vulnerabilities.

5. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)

  Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.
  Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.

6. Which two statements regarding preventing network attacks are true? (Choose two.)

  Physical security threat mitigation consists of controlling access to device console ports, labeling critical cable runs, installing UPS systems, and providing climate control.
  Changing default usernames and passwords and disabling or uninstalling unnecessary services are aspects of device hardening.

7. An IT director has begun a campaign to remind users to avoid opening e-mail messages from suspicious sources. Which type of attack is the IT director trying to protect users from?

  virus

8. Users are unable to access a company server. The system logs show that the server is operating slowly because it is receiving a high level of fake requests for service. Which type of attack is occurring?

  DoS

9. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the "ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 cisco" statement in the configuration?
  to specify a key that is used to authenticate routing updates

10. Which two statements define the security risk when DNS services are enabled on the network? (Choose two.)

  The basic DNS protocol does not provide authentication or integrity assurance.
  The router configuration does not provide an option to set up main and backup DNS servers.

11. Which two statements are true about network attacks? (Choose two.)

  A brute-force attack searches to try every possible password from a combination of characters.
  Devices in the DMZ should not be fully trusted by internal devices, and communication between the DMZ and internal devices should be authenticated to prevent attacks such as port redirection.

12. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM, but it is not functioning correctly. What could be the problem?

  The privilege level of the user is not configured correctly.

13. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is trying to back up the Cisco IOS router software and receives the output shown. What are two possible reasons for this output? (Choose two.)

  The router cannot connect to the TFTP server.
  The TFTP server software has not been started.

14 
Which two statements are true regarding network security? (Choose two.)

  Both experienced hackers who are capable of writing their own exploit code and inexperienced individuals who download exploits from the Internet pose a serious threat to network security.
  Protecting network devices from physical damage caused by water or electricity is a necessary part of the security policy.

15. The password recovery process begins in which operating mode and using what type of connection? (Choose two.)

  ROM monitor
  direct connection through the console port

16. Which two objectives must a security policy accomplish? (Choose two.)

  document the resources to be protected
  identify the security objectives of the organization

17. Which statement is true about Cisco Security Device Manager (SDM)?

  SDM can be run from router memory or from a PC.

18. Which step is required to recover a lost enable password for a router?

  Set the configuration register to bypass the startup configuration.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) is installed on router R1. What is the result of opening a web browser on PC1 and entering the URL https://192.168.10.1?

  The SDM page of R1 appears with a dialog box that requests a username and password.

20. Intrusion detection occurs at which stage of the Security Wheel?

  monitoring

21. Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) has been used to configure a required level of security on the router. What would be accomplished when the SDM applies the next step on the security problems that are identified on the router?

  SDM will reconfigure the services that are marked in the exhibit as “fix it” to apply the suggested security changes.

22 
What are two benefits of using Cisco AutoSecure? (Choose two.)

  It gives the administrator detailed control over which services are enabled or disabled.
  It allows the administrator to configure security policies without having to understand all of the Cisco IOS software features.

Read More

CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 7 (100%) -> latest

http://p4s-ccna.blogspot.com
http://testccna-4u.blogspot.com

1. Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 address 2006:1::1/64 eui-64 has been configured on the router FastEthernet0/0 interface. Which statement accurately describes the EUI-64 identifier configuration?

The configuration will derive the interface portion of the IPv6 address from the MAC address of the interface.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?

209.165.20.25

3. Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create subnetworks?

16

4. What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)

It saves public IP addresses.
It adds a degree of privacy and security to a network.

5. What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?

PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.

http://p4s-ccna.blogspot.com
http://testccna-4u.blogspot.com


6. A network administrator wants to connect two IPv6 islands. The easiest way is through a public network that uses only IPv4 equipment. What simple solution solves the problem?

Use tunneling to encapsulate the IPv6 traffic in the IPv4 protocol.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two addresses could be assigned to traffic leaving S0 as a result of the statement ip nat pool Tampa 179.9.8.96 179.9.8.111 netmask 255.255.255.240? (Choose two.)

179.9.8.98
179.9.8.101

8. Refer to the exhibit. The FTP server has an RFC 1918 private address. Users on the Internet need to connect to the FTP server on the Fa0/0 LAN of R1. Which three configurations must be completed on R1? (Choose three.)

open port 20
open port 21
NAT with port forwarding

9. After activating IPv6 routing on a Cisco router and programming IPv6 addresses on multiple interfaces, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng?

Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable IPng RIP.

10. Refer to the exhibit. How many IPv6 broadcast domains exist in this topology?

0

11. Refer to the exhibit. Traffic exiting R1 is failing translation. What part of the configuration is most likely incorrect?

access-list statement

12. Refer to the exhibit. According to the output, how many addresses have been successfully assigned by this DHCP server?

8

13. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?

defines which addresses can be translated

14. A technician has been told by a supervisor to always clear any dynamic translations before attempting to troubleshoot a failed NAT connection. Why has the supervisor issued these instructions?

Because entries can be cached for long periods of time, the supervisor wants to prevent decisions being made based on old data.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the configuration are true? (Choose two.)

Traffic from the 10.1.1.0 network will be translated.
Permitted traffic gets translated to a single inside global IP address.

16. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT for the 10.1.1.0/24 network, and R2 is performing NAT for the 192.168.1.2/24 network. What would be valid destination IP address for HostA to put in its IP header when communicating with the web server?

172.30.20.2

17. What type of NAT should a network administrator use to ensure that a web server on the inside network is always available to the outside network?

static NAT

18. How many bits of an IPv6 address are used to identify the interface ID?

64

19. Refer to the exhibit. A technician used SDM to enter the NAT configuration for a Cisco router. Which statement correctly describes the result of the configuration?

A user on the outside network sees a request addressed from 192.168.1.3 using port 80.

20. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?

The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.

21. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how should the pool of the excluded addresses be assigned to key hosts on the network, such as router interfaces, printers, and servers?

The addresses are statically assigned by the network administrator.

Read More

CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 6 (100%)

http://p4s-ccna.blogspot.com
http://testccna-4u.blogspot.com

1. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)

channel widths
modulation techniques

2. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?

pre-shared key

3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)

allocate an additional channel
subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment

4. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statement describes the situation observed by the technician?

Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.

5. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator has decided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the result of this solution?

The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN client software.

http://p4s-ccna.blogspot.com
http://testccna-4u.blogspot.com



6. Data confidentiality through a VPN is achieved through which two methods? (Choose two.)

encryption
encapsulation

7. Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption protocols? (Choose three.)
AES
DES
RSA

8. What two protocols provide data authentication and integrity for IPsec? (Choose two.)
AH
ESP

9. A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?

DSL

10. What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)

authentication
data confidentiality
data integrity

11. A company is using WiMAX to provide access for teleworkers. What home equipment must the company provide at the teleworker's site?

a WiMAX receiver

12. Which two methods could an administrator use to authenticate users on a remote access VPN? (Choose two.)
digital certificates
smart cards

13. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)

local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)
user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO

14. Which two features can be associated with the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX) telecommunication technology? (Choose two.)

covers areas as large as 7,500 square kilometers
connects directly to the Internet through high-bandwidth connections

15. Refer to the exhibit. All users have a legitimate purpose and the necessary persissions to access the Corporate network. Based on the topology shown, which locations are able to establish VPN connectivity with the Corporate network?

All locations can support VPN connectivity.

16. Which statement describes cable?

Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and upstream frequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.

17. Which two protocols can be used to encapsulate traffic that is traversing a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)

IPsec
PPTP

18. Refer to the exhibit. A teleworker is connected over the Internet to the HQ Office. What type of secure connection can be established between the teleworker and the HQ Office?

a remote-access VPN

19. Refer to the exhibit. A VPN tunnel has been established between the HQ Office and the Branch Office over the public Internet. Which three mechanisms are required by the devices on each end of the VPN tunnel to protect the data from being intercepted and modified? (Choose three.)

The two parties must establish a secret key used by encryption and hash algorithms.
The two parties must agree on the encryption algorithm to be used over the VPN tunnel.
The devices must be authenticated before the communication path is considered secure.

Read More

CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 5 (100%)

http://p4s-ccna.blogspot.com

http://testccna-4u.blogspot.com

1. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?
  Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.

2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)

  protocol suite
  source address
  destination address

3. Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?

  It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.

4 .Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)

  Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
  Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.

http://p4s-ccna.blogspot.com

http://testccna-4u.blogspot.com

5. Where should a standard access control list be placed?

  close to the destination

6. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)

  An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.
  A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.
  Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list.

7. Refer to the exhibit. How will Router1 treat traffic matching the time-range requirement of EVERYOTHERDAY?

  Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.

8. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any

  FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
  Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.

9. Which two statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)

  The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
  The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be checked.

10. Refer to the exhibit. When creating an extended ACL to deny traffic from the 192.168.30.0 network destined for the Web server 209.165.201.30, where is the best location for applying the ACL?

  R3 Fa0/0 inbound

11. How do Cisco standard ACLs filter traffic?

  by source IP address

12. Which three items must be configured before a dynamic ACL can become active on a router? (Choose three.)

  extended ACL
  authentication
  Telnet connectivity

13. A network administrator needs to allow traffic through the firewall router for sessions that originate from within the company network, but the administrator must block traffic for sessions that originate outside the network of the company. What type of ACL is most appropriate?

  reflexive

14. Which statement about standard ACLs is true?

  They should be placed as close to the destination as possible.

15. Which benefit does an extended ACL offer over a standard ACL?

  In addition to the source address, an extended ACL can also filter on destination address, destination port, and source port.

16. The following commands were entered on a router:

Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24
Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any

The ACL is correctly applied to an interface. What can be concluded about this set of commands?

  All nodes on the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied access to other networks.

17. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator wishes to block web traffic from 192.168.1.50 from reaching the default port of the web service on 192.168.3.30. To do this, the access control list name is applied inbound on the router R1 LAN interface. After testing the list, the administrator has noted that the web traffic remains successful. Why is web traffic reaching the destination?

  The range of source addresses specified in line 10 does not include host 192.168.1.50.

18. Which feature will require the use of a named ACL rather than a numbered ACL?

  the ability to edit the ACL and add additional statements in the middle of the list without removing and re-creating the list

19. By default, how is IP traffic filtered in a Cisco router?

  permitted in and out of all interfaces

20. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator applied an ACL outbound on S0/0/0 on router R1. Immediately after the administrator did so, the users on network 172.22.30.0/24 started complaining that they have intermittent access to the resources available on the server on the 10.10.0.0/16 network. On the basis of the configuration that is provided, what is the possible reason for the problem?

  The ACL permits the IP packets for users on network 172.22.30.0/24 only during a specific time range.

21. Interface s0/0/0 already has an IP ACL applied inbound. What happens when the network administrator attempts to apply a second inbound IP ACL?

  The second ACL is applied to the interface, replacing the first.

22. A technician is creating an ACL and needs a way to indicate only the subnet 172.16.16.0/21. Which combination of network address and wildcard mask will accomplish the desired task?

  172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255

23. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about ACL 110 if ACL 110 is applied in the inbound direction on S0/0/0 of R1?

  It will permit any TCP traffic that originated from network 172.22.10.0/24 to return inbound on the S0/0/0 interface.

24. Refer to the exhibit. ACL 120 is configured inbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1, but the hosts on network 172.11.10.0/24 are able to telnet to network 10.10.0.0/16. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be done to remedy the problem?
  Apply the ACL outbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1.

25. Which two statements are true regarding named ACLs? (Choose two.)

  Names can be used to help identify the function of the ACL.
  Certain complex ACLs, such as reflexive ACLs, must be defined with named ACLs.

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CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 4 (100%)

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http://testccna-4u.blogspot.com

1. What is the best defense for protecting a network from phishing exploits?

  Schedule training for all users.

2. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)

  It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
  It communicates consensus and defines roles.
  It defines how to handle security incidents.

3. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)

  The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.
  The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.

4. Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are configured on the router?

  The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the router to prevent security vulnerabilities.

5. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)

  Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.
  Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.

6. Which two statements regarding preventing network attacks are true? (Choose two.)

  Physical security threat mitigation consists of controlling access to device console ports, labeling critical cable runs, installing UPS systems, and providing climate control.
  Changing default usernames and passwords and disabling or uninstalling unnecessary services are aspects of device hardening.

7. An IT director has begun a campaign to remind users to avoid opening e-mail messages from suspicious sources. Which type of attack is the IT director trying to protect users from?

  virus

8. Users are unable to access a company server. The system logs show that the server is operating slowly because it is receiving a high level of fake requests for service. Which type of attack is occurring?

  DoS

9. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the "ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 cisco" statement in the configuration?
  to specify a key that is used to authenticate routing updates

10. Which two statements define the security risk when DNS services are enabled on the network? (Choose two.)

  The basic DNS protocol does not provide authentication or integrity assurance.
  The router configuration does not provide an option to set up main and backup DNS servers.

11. Which two statements are true about network attacks? (Choose two.)

  A brute-force attack searches to try every possible password from a combination of characters.
  Devices in the DMZ should not be fully trusted by internal devices, and communication between the DMZ and internal devices should be authenticated to prevent attacks such as port redirection.
12. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM, but it is not functioning correctly. What could be the problem?

  The privilege level of the user is not configured correctly.

13. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is trying to back up the Cisco IOS router software and receives the output shown. What are two possible reasons for this output? (Choose two.)

  The router cannot connect to the TFTP server.
  The TFTP server software has not been started.

14 
Which two statements are true regarding network security? (Choose two.)

  Both experienced hackers who are capable of writing their own exploit code and inexperienced individuals who download exploits from the Internet pose a serious threat to network security.
  Protecting network devices from physical damage caused by water or electricity is a necessary part of the security policy.

15. The password recovery process begins in which operating mode and using what type of connection? (Choose two.)

  ROM monitor
  Direct connection through the console port

16. Which two objectives must a security policy accomplish? (Choose two.)

  Document the resources to be protected
  Identify the security objectives of the organization

17. Which statement is true about Cisco Security Device Manager (SDM)?

  SDM can be run from router memory or from a PC.

18. Which step is required to recover a lost enable password for a router?

  Set the configuration register to bypass the startup configuration.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) is installed on router R1. What is the result of opening a web browser on PC1 and entering the URL https://192.168.10.1?

  The SDM page of R1 appears with a dialog box that requests a username and password.

20. Intrusion detection occurs at which stage of the Security Wheel?

  Monitoring

21. Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) has been used to configure a required level of security on the router. What would be accomplished when the SDM applies the next step on the security problems that are identified on the router?

  SDM will reconfigure the services that are marked in the exhibit as “fix it” to apply the suggested security changes.

22 
What are two benefits of using Cisco AutoSecure? (Choose two.)

  It gives the administrator detailed control over which services are enabled or disabled.
  It allows the administrator to configure security policies without having to understand all of the Cisco IOS software features.

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CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 1 (100%)

 http://p4s-ccna.blogspot.com    
http://testccna-4u.blogspot.com

1. Which statement about WAN protocols is correct?

  Most WAN protocols use HDLC or a variant of HDLC as a framing mechanism.

2. Which statement is true of the functionality of the layers in the hierarchical network model?

  The distribution layer aggregates WAN connections at the edge of the campus.

3. Which WAN technology uses a fixed payload of 48 bytes and is transported across both switched and permanent virtual circuits?

  ATM

4. A U.S. company requires a WAN connection used only to transfer sales data from individual stores to the home office. All transfers will occur after business hours. The required bandwidth for this connection is estimated to be less than 38 kbps. Which type of connection requires the least investment for this company?

  analog dialup

5. What is an advantage of packet-switched technology over circuit-switched technology?

  Packet-switched networks can efficiently use multiple routes inside a service provider network.

6. Which statement is true about data connectivity between a customer and a service provider?

  The segment between the demarcation point and the central office is known as the "last mile."

7. What are two advantages of an analog PSTN WAN connection? (Choose two.)

  low cost
  availability

8. What can cause a reduction in available bandwidth on a cable broadband connection?

  number of subscribers

9. For digital lines, which device is used to establish the communications link between the customer equipment and the local loop?

  CSU/DSU

10. At which two layers of the OSI model does a WAN operate? (Choose two.)

  Physical Layer
  Data Link Layer

11. A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a minimum data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice?

  ATM

12. Which statement is true about the differences between a WAN and a LAN?

  A WAN often relies on the services of carriers, such as telephone or cable companies, but a LAN does not.

13. Which networking device is typically used to concentrate the dial-in and dial-out traffic of multiple users to and from a network?

  access server

14. Why is the call setup time of a circuit-switched WAN implementation considered a drawback?

  Data cannot be transferred until a circuit has been established.

15. What three terms are associated with ISDN PRI? (Choose three.)

  circuit switching
  data bearer channels
  time-division multiplexing

16. Which three features are identified with Frame Relay connections? (Choose three.)
  CIR
  DLCI
  PVC

17. Which two devices are commonly used as data communications equipment? (Choose two.)

  modem
  CSU/DSU

18. Which packet-switched WAN technology offers high-bandwidth connectivity capable of managing data, voice, and video all on the same infrastructure?

  metro Ethernet

19. Which three WAN devices can be found in the cloud? (Choose three.)

  ATM switches
  core routers
  Frame Relay switches

20. Which switching type will allow the communication devices in the provider network to be shared and only allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer?

  dedicated switched lines

21. What type of connectivity is established when VPNs are used from the remote site to the private network?

  tunnels

22. Which term describes a device that will put data on the local loop?

  DCE

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CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 3 (100%)

1. Which best describes the benefit of using Frame Relay as opposed to a leased line or ISDN service?

  Customers only pay for the local loop and the bandwidth they purchase from the network provider.

2. Which statement about Frame Relay subinterfaces is correct?

  Point-to-point subinterfaces act like leased lines and eliminate split-horizon routing issues.

3. What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)?

  locally significant address used to identify a virtual circuit

4. What is created between two DTEs in a Frame Relay network?

  virtual circuit

5. Which two items allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)

  Inverse ARP
  LMI status messages

6. Refer to the exhibit. What can be known about the configuration of router R1 from the output?

  The command encapsulation frame-relay ietf has been used on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two outcomes occur from the configuration shown? (Choose two.)

  The router will use DLCI 22 to forward data to 10.1.1.1.
  Frames arriving on interface serial 0/0/0 of RT_1 will have a data link layer address of 22.

8. Refer to the exhibit. What effect does the point-to-point configuration on subinterface S0/0.110 have on the operation of the router?

  It eliminates split horizon issues without increasing the likelihood of routing loops.

9. Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. Router HQ belongs to both the 172.16.1.0/24 and 172.16.2.0/24 subnets with IP addresses of 172.16.1.3 and 172.16.2.3 respectively. Traffic between R1 and R2 must travel through HQ first. How should the serial interface on HQ be configured to complete the topology?

  two point-to-point subinterfaces

10. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the configuration of router R1 from the exhibited output?

  The LMI type for the Serial 0/0/0 interface has been left to its default configuration.

11. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the Frame Relay switch from the output shown?

  It is experiencing congestion.

12. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true given the output shown? (Choose two.)

  The local DLCI number is 401.
  Inverse ARP is being used on this connection.

13. Refer to the exhibit. A ping is sent to address 192.168.50.10 from the Peanut router. Which DLCI will be used to send the ping?

  110

14. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. Which set of configuration options for routers R2 and R3 would provide each router connectivity to R1?

  R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point
  R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201
  R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point
  R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains why the Frame Relay connection between R1 and R2 is failing?

  The frame-relay map commands are using incorrect DLCIs.

16. Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is part of a Frame Relay network that uses OSPF for IP routing. After the commands that are shown are entered, R2 will not exchange OSPF information correctly. What is the likely cause?

  The frame-relay map command requires the broadcast keyword.

17. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a Frame Relay connection, an administrator entered the show interfaces s0/0 command and received the output shown in the exhibit. What are two probable reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)

  The router is not configured for the same Frame Relay PVC as the switch.
  The LMI type on the Frame Relay switch is NOT ANSI.

18. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output?

  Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an DLCI of 201.

19. What consideration must be taken into account if RIP is used on Frame Relay multiaccess networks?

  To forward routing updates, address-to-DLCI mapping must be done via the use of the frame-relay map command coupled with the broadcast keyword.

20. Which three actions does a Frame Relay switch perform when it detects an excessive build-up of frames in its queue? (Choose three.)

  drops frames from the queue that have the DE bit set
  sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link
  sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link

21. What two methods does Frame Relay technology use to process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)

  Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.
  The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.

22. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. What configuration option should be configured on the R2 and R3 serial interfaces in order for all routers to ping each other successfully?

  R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast  R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast  R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast  R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast

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