CCNA3 Final

1











Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to setup Switch1 for remote access from HostA. The show ip interface brief is issued on Router1 and the show interfaces trunk command is issued on the Switch1 to verify the current status. The administrator applies the additional configuration shown in the exhibit to Switch1. However, the telnet from HostA fails. What additional commands need to be applied
to the switch?

Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.50.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.50.254

Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

==> Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

Switch(config)# interface vlan 50
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254


2









Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how will an Ethernet frame on port GigabitEthernet0/1 be modified?

802.1Q encapsulation prepends a 4-byte tag field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
==> 802.1Q encapsulation inserts a 4-byte tag field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
802.1Q encapsulation prepends an 802.1p field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
802.1Q encapsulation inserts an 802.1p field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.


3
What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?
==> All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.
Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.
Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.
The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk.


4
Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?
==> SSID
OFDM
WEP
DSSS


5
















Refer to the exhibit. What is the consequence if SW1 port F0/1 is configured as an edge port?

SW1 port F0/1 transitions to the learning state.
==> SW1 port F0/1 can generate a temporary loop.
SW1 port F0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
SW1 port F0/2 no longer passes BPDUs to SW4.


6










Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y?

QoS
routing
==> trunking
VPN


7


















Refer to the exhibit. Spanning-tree port priorities are 128 for all interfaces. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. Which two port results are correct? (Choose two.)

==> S1 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
S2 Gi0/2 becomes a non-designated port.
S3 Gi0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
S4 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
==> S4 Gi0/2 becomes a designated port.


8












Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)

This switch shows no configuration revision errors.
This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices.
==> This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain.
This switch will drop all VTP advertisements that come from the switches that are configured in the same VTP domain.
==> This switch will cause no disruption in the VTP domain operations if the rest of the switches in the same VTP domain have a higher configuration revision number.


9









Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping computer 3 but cannot ping computer 1. What is a possible cause for this failure?

==> S1 port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.
R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
The IP address of computer 1 is in the wrong logical network.
Router interface Fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.


10
























Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are interconnected via a trunk link. Host A and host B are on the default VLAN but are not able to exchange traffic. What should be done to fix the problem?

Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.
Include a router or switch with Layer 3 capabilities.
==> Configure the same native VLAN on both ends of the trunk.


11























Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?

Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.
==> Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.
Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.
Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces used to connect SW1 and SW2.


12
What happens when the crypto key zeroize rsa command is entered on a switch configured with the transport input ssh command on the vty lines?

A new RSA key pair is created.
The switch defaults to allowing Telnet connections only.
The switch is no longer able to make SSH connections as an SSH client.
==> The switch allows remote connections only after a new RSA key pair is generated.


13












Refer to the exhibit. An Ethernet switch has developed the CAM table shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?

==> forward the frame out all interfaces except Interface3
add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to Interface2 in the forwarding table
forward the frame out Interface3
discard the frame
forward the frame out all interfaces
forward the frame out Interface2


14
Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)

==> It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies.
It eliminates the need for redundant physical paths in network topologies.
==> It can only be used in networks in which Layer 2 switching is in use.
It can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used together.
It can only be used in networks where routers are installed.


15










Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP addresses should be assigned to this new host?

192.168.1.11 /28
==> 192.168.1.22 /28
192.168.1.33 /28
192.168.1.44 /28
192.168.1.55 /28


16























Refer to the exhibit. How does SW1 manage traffic coming from Host A?

SW1 drops the traffic because it is untagged.
==> SW1 leaves the traffic untagged and forwards it over the trunk.
SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.


17

Refer to the exhibit. The switches are configured for VTP as shown. Which two statements correctly describe the operation of these switches? (Choose two.)

A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.
==> A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4
==> An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2
An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.


18























Refer to the exhibit. Computer A sends a broadcast message. Which devices will see the broadcast?

computer B
computer B and Router1
==> computer C and Router1
computer B, computer D, computer E and Router1
computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1
computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1


19











Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters the configuration shown to allow both SSH and Telnet connections to the switch. The Telnet connections fail. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

The SSH version number is wrong.
SSH has been configured on the wrong line.
Telnet and SSH cannot be configured simultaneously.
==> The transport input command is configured incorrectly.


20











Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
Cat-A
Cat-B
==> Cat-C
Cat-D

21
















Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. Which VLANs will be pruned from switch SW3?

==> VLAN 10 and VLAN 20
VLAN 1, VLAN 10, and VLAN 20
VLAN 1, VLAN 1002 through 1005
VLAN 1, VLAN 10, VLAN 20, VLAN 1002 through 1005


22












Refer to the exhibit. What does STATIC indicate in the output that is shown?

The switch will not allow any other device to connect to port Fa0/15.
==> Traffic destined for MAC address 0000.c123.5432 will be forwarded to Fa0/15.
This entry will be removed and refreshed every 300 seconds to keep it in the table.
The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/15.
When processing a frame, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port.


23
Which three statements are true regarding router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.)

==> requires the use of subinterfaces on the router
requires an access link between the router and Layer 2 switch
==> more cost-efficient and scalable than using multiple physical interfaces
requires each subinterface to be configured with the no shutdown command
==> can impact performance if many VLANs compete for bandwidth on a single router interface
makes troubleshooting the inter-VLAN routing configuration much less complex than when using multiple physical interfaces


24










Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a destination address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
==> The router will ignore the packet because the source and destination are on the same broadcast domain.
The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.


25
















Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to remove the east-hosts VLAN and use the switch port from that VLAN in one of the existing VLANs. What two commands should be used when completely removing VLAN 2 from S1-Central while leaving the switch and all its interfaces operational? (Choose two.)

S1-Central# reload
S1-Central# erase flash:
==> S1-Central(config)# no vlan 2
S1-Central# delete flash:vlan.dat
==> S1-Central(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3


26













Refer to the exhibit. What does "FORWARDING" mean in the command output shown?

==> The switch is sending and receiving data frames
The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.


27






















Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?

Disable VTP pruning on SW2.
Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.
==> Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password.
Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.


28
What are three benefits of a hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)

==> reduced contention for bandwidth
reduced size of the physical layout
==> increased fault tolerance of the network
elimination of the need for wiring closets
elimination of the need for layer three functionality
==> simplification of management and troubleshooting


29























Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly identify information that could be associated with this output?(Choose three.)

==> Interface FastEthernet3/0/0 is subinterfaced.
==> A non-proprietary trunking protocol is in use.
==> The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.
A shutdown command has been applied to interface FastEthernet3/0/0.
Interface FastEthernet3/0/0.3 is mapped to the default management VLAN.
An IP address should be applied to FastEthernet3/0/0 for correct data routing.


30












Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem?

All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2.
SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain.
==> VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of SW1.
The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could contain.


31













Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to implement inter-VLAN routing on a hierarchical network. On which devices should the inter-VLAN routing be configured?

AS1 and AS2
DS1 and DS2
==> Gateway and CS1
Gateway, CS1, DS1, and DS2


32
Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.)

Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled.
Enable password is configured as cisco.
==> All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.
==> The flash directory contains the IOS image.
VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
==> All interfaces are set to auto-negotiation of speed and duplex.


33
















Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
==>
After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.
Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
==> If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting.


34




















Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator enters the show interface fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?

The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.
==> The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.
The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic trunking protocol to establish a trunk.
The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.


35















Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the interfaces? (Choose two.)

Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.
==> Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.
Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.
Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.
==> Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.


36
What three tasks should be performed before moving a Catalyst switch to another VTP management domain? (Choose three.)

==> Select the correct VTP mode and version.
==> Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain
Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
Configure the VTP server in the new domain to recognize the BID of the switch.
Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the new domain.
==> Verify that the switch has a lower configuration revision number than the other switches in the new domain


37














Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?

only hosts A and B
==> only hosts A, B, and C
only hosts A, B, C, and D
only hosts A, B, C, and E


38
Which statement regarding the service password-encryption command is true?

The service password-encryption command is entered at the privileged EXEC mode prompt.
The service password-encryption command encrypts only passwords for the console and VTY ports.
==> The service password-encryption command encrypts all previously unencrypted passwords in the running configuration.
To see the passwords encrypted by the service password-encryption command, enter the no service password-encryption command.


39










Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true regarding what the cost value of 23 represents for Switch4? (Choose two.)
==> This cost represents the lowest cost path for Switch4 to the root switch.
A cost of 23 is the value being advertised out port 16 on the switch upstream (closer) to the root switch.
==> Switch4 adds the cost of a Fast Ethernet link to 23 to determine its total cost to reach the root switch
Switch4 is connected via a Fast Ethernet link to an upstream switch that in turn is directly connected to the root switch via a Gigabit Ethernet link.
The root switch is advertising a cost of 23, which is lower than any other switch in the VLAN0001 spanning-tree domain.


40











Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate? (Choose three.)

==> The switch ports are on different VLANs.
The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet.
==> The hosts are configured on different logical networks.
==> A router is required to forward traffic between Host1 and Host2.
The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN.
The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.


41










Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?

switch A
switch B
switch C
switch D
switch E
==> switch F


42












Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. What is the last device to receive the collision?

hub HB1
==> switch SW1
router R1
switch SW2
router R2
switch SW4


43
Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter when choosing the root bridge?

The network diameter limitation is 9.
==> BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers.
The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.
The network diameter must be set to the number of meters of the cable between the root bridge and its farthest connected switch.

44












Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured Router1 for inter-VLAN routing. A test of the network, however, shows that hosts on each VLAN can only access local resources and not resources on the other VLAN. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

==> Switch port Fa0/1 is not trunking.
Router interface Fa0/0 is possibly down.
No routing protocol is configured on Router1.
One of the router subinterfaces is possibly down.

45
What is the purpose of issuing the command switchport mode access on a switch interface?
disable port security
make the port operational
override the default port behavior
==> force the port to be a part of a single vlan


46











Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true regarding the information shown?
Only one VLAN is currently configured to use the trunk links.
The switch negotiated trunk links for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
A Cisco proprietary protocol is in use for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
==> Interfaces Gi0/1 and Fa0/1 are allowed to carry data from multiple VLANs


47
Which identifier is used to keep track of frames that are destined for a particular wireless client?
AID
SSID
==> BSSID
ESSID


48






Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when frames that contain an unknown source address reach interface fa0/24?

A syslog message will be logged.
Fa0/24 will become error-disabled.
==> The incoming frames will be dropped
The security violation count will be incremented.


49

In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements?
client
root
server
==> transparent


50
Which method establishes an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N wireless access point?

Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.
Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software.
==> From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser.
Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the same network, and then reboot your computer to establish a connection.


51
What two methods can be used to remove MAC address table entries from a switch? (Choose two.)
The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries.
==> The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries.
The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries.
Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port.


52
What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.)
requires less equipment
==> provides improved range
==> permits increased data rates
has a single-input and a single-output
needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility

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BitDefender Total Security 2010 – Proactive Protection Against Viruses, Spyware, Hackers, Spam

Download Trial Version (32 bit)

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BitDefender Total Security application was designed to provide comprehensive proactive protection against viruses, spyware, hackers, spam and other Internet security threats, along with system maintenance and data backup.
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Confidently download, share and open files from friends, family, co-workers – and even total strangers:
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Protect your identity: shop, bank, listen and watch, privately and securely:
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· File Shredder permanently erases sensitive files and traces of files
Guard your files and conversations with top-of-the line encryption:
· Instant Messaging Encryption keeps your conversations private on Yahoo! and MSN Messenger
· File Vault securely stores personal information or sensitive files
· Automatically backs up files and folders
· Connect securely to any network at home, at the office, or away:
· The two-way firewall automatically secures your Internet connection wherever you are
· Wi-Fi monitor helps prevent unauthorized access to your Wi-Fi network
Protect your family and their computers:
· Parental Control blocks access to inappropriate websites and e-mail
· Limits kids’ access the Internet, games, etc. to specific times
· Makes it easy for you to manage the security of your network from a single location
Play safely, play seamlessly:
· Reduces the system load and avoids requesting user interaction during game play
Get fine-tuned performance from your computer:
· Removes unnecessary files & registry entries, for improved performance
· Optimized scanning technology skips safe files for better scan speed and lower system load
· Antispam stops unwanted e-mail from reaching your Inbox
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· Assistance with common issues built directly into the product
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ICND 2 - Nat Sim Question

Here you will find answers to SIMULATION Questions 

Question:

A network associate is configuring a router for the weaver company to provide internet access. The ISP has provided the company six public IP addresses of 198.18.184.105 198.18.184.110. The company has 14 hosts that need to access the internet simultaneously. The hosts in the company LAN have been assigned private space addresses in the range of 192.168.100.17 – 192.168.100.30.

The following have already been configured on the router： - The basic router configuration - The appropriate interfaces have been configured for NAT inside and NAT outside - The appropriate static routes have also been configured (since the company will be a stub network, no routing protocol will be required.) - All passwords have been temporarily set to "cisco"

Solution:

The company has 14 hosts that need to access the internet simultaneously but we just have 6 public IP addresses from 198.18.184.105 to 198.18.184.110/29. Therefore we have to use NAT overload (or PAT)
Double click on the Weaver router to open it

Router>enable

Router#configure terminal

First you should change the router's name to Weaver

Router(config)#hostname Weaver

Create a NAT pool of global addresses to be allocated with their netmask.

Weaver(config)#ip nat pool mypool 198.18.184.105 198.18.184.110 netmask 255.255.255.248

Create a standard access control list that permits the addresses that are to be translated

Weaver(config)#access-list 1 permit 192.168.100.16 0.0.0.15

Establish dynamic source translation, specifying the access list that was defined in the prior step
Weaver(config)#ip nat inside source list 1 pool mypool overload
This command translates all source addresses that pass access list 1, which means a source address from 192.168.100.17 to 192.168.100.30, into an address from the pool named mypool (the pool contains addresses from 198.18.184.105 to 198.18.184.110)
Overload keyword allows to map multiple IP addresses to a single registered IP address (many-to-one) by using different ports

The question said that appropriate interfaces have been configured for NAT inside and NAT outside statements.
This is how to configure the NAT inside and NAT outside, just for your understanding:

Weaver(config)#interface fa0/0

Weaver(config-if)#ip nat inside

Weaver(config-if)#exit

Weaver(config)#interface s0/0

Weaver(config-if)#ip nat outside

Weaver(config-if)#end

Finally, we should save all your work with the following command:

Weaver#copy running-config startup-config

Check your configuration by going to "Host for testing" and type:

C:\>ping 192.0.2.114

The ping should work well and you will be replied from 192.0.2.114

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CCNA2 Chapter 10 (NEW)

1 What action does a link-state router take immediately upon receipt of an LSP from a neighboring router?

• floods the LSP to neighbors
calculates the SPF algorithm
runs the Bellman-Ford algorithm
computes the best path to the destination network

2 Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?

Each router builds a simple view of the network based on hop count.
Routers flood the network with LSAs to discover routing loops.
• Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.
Routers use hold-down timers to prevent routing loops.

3

Refer to the exhibit. What kind of information would be seen in an LSP sent from router JAX to router ATL?

hop count
uptime of the route
• cost of the link
a list of all the routing protocols in use

4 To achieve network convergence, what three steps does each link state router take? (Choose three.)

use automatic summarization to reduce the size of routing tables
• build a Link State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link
• flood the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database
discover neighbors and establish adjacencies using the hello packet sent at regular intervals
• construct a complete map of the topology and compute the best path to each destination network
use the DUAL FSM to select efficient, loop-free paths, and insert routes into the routing table

5

Refer to the exhibit. When Router D is configured to use a link-state routing protocol and is added to the network, what is the first thing that it does to begin learning the network topology?

It sends LSP packets to Routers B and C.
It sends LSP packets to all routers in the network.
It sends Hello packets to all routers in the network.
It sends information about its directly connected neighbors to Routers A and E.
It sends information about its directly connected neighbors to all routers in the network.
• It learns about its directly connected networks when its interfaces reach the up state.

6 A new network administrator is given the task of selecting an appropriate dynamic routing protocol for a software development company. The company has over 100 routers, uses CIDR and VLSM, requires fast convergence, and uses both Cisco and non-Cisco equipment. Which routing protocol is appropriate for this company?

RIP version 2
IGRP
EIGRP
• OSPF
BGP

7 What two events will cause a link state router to send LSPs to all neighbors? (Choose two.)

30 second timer expires
• whenever the network topology changes
immediately after the Bellman-Ford algorithm has run
immediately after the DUAL FSM has built the topology database
• upon initial startup of router or routing protocol

8 What is the final step in the link state routing process?

successors are placed into the routing table
• SPF computes best path to each destination network
LSPs are flooded to all neighbors to converge the network
DUAL algorithm is run to find best path to destination networks

9

Refer to the exhibit. What does JAX do with link-state packets from ORL?

sends out its updated routing table to both ORL and BOS routers
• sends out the individual link-state packets out the interface connected to BOS
queries BOS to see if it has a better route
only adds it to the local routing table and performs no other actions

10 What two statements correctly describe the link state routing process? (Choose two.)

• each router in the area floods LSPs to all neighbors
• all routers in the area have identical link state databases
LSPs use the reserved multicast address of 224.0.0.10 to reach neighbors
routing loops are prevented by running the Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL)
Reliable Transport Protocol (RTP) is the protocol used by for the delivery and reception of LSPs

11 Which database or table must be identical on all link-state routers within an area in order to construct an accurate SPF tree?

routing table
adjacency table
• link-state database
neighbor table
topology database

12

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the path traffic would take from the 10.0.0.0/24 network to the 192.168.1.0/24 network if a link-state routing protocol was in use?

BOS -> ATL because this path is the least hops
BOS -> ATL because this path is highest cost
• BOS -> ORL -> JAX -> ATL because this path is the lowest cost
traffic would load balance across all links

13 What feature do modern link-state protocols provide to minimize processing and memory requirements?

• splitting routing topologies into smaller areas
assigning lower process priorities to route calculations
using update timers to restrict routing updates
strict split horizon rules to reduce routing table entries

14 What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?

• updates triggered by network changes
updates sent at regular intervals
updates sent only to directly connected neighbors
updates that include complete routing tables

15 Which algorithm is run by link-state routing protocols to calculate the shortest path to destination networks?

DUAL
• Dijkstra
Bellman-Ford
Diffie-Hellman

16 What are some of the advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)

The topology database eliminates the need for a routing table.
Frequent periodic updates are sent to minimize the number of incorrect routes in the topological database.
• Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected.
• After the inital LSA flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a topology.
Link-state protocols require less router processor power than distance vector protocols.

17

Refer to the exhibit. If all routers and interfaces are configured to use a link-state routing protocol, from which routers will router D receive hello packets?

A and E
• B and C
A, B, C, and E
C only

18 Which two routing protocols use Dijkstra’s shortest path first algorithm? (Choose two.)

RIPv1
RIPv2
• IS-IS
BGP
EIGRP
• OSPF

19 When are link-state packets sent to neighbors?

every 30 seconds
every 180 seconds
after the holddown time expires
• when a link goes up or down
when a routing loop occurs

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CCNA2 Chapter 9 (new)

1 What two actions will the EIGRP DUAL FSM take if a link to a network goes down? (Choose two.)
put the route into passive mode
*query neighbors for a new route
search routing table for a feasible successor
run the SPF algorithm to find a new successor
*search topology table for a feasible successor

2

Host 192.168.1.66 in the network illustrated is unable to ping host 192.168.1.130. How must EIGRP be configured to
enable connectivity between the two hosts? (Choose two.)
R1(config-router)# network 192.168.1.128
R1(config-router)# auto-summary
* R1(config-router)# no auto-summary
* R2(config-router)# no auto-summary
R2(config-router)# auto-summary
R2(config-router)# network 192.168.1.64

3

Refer to the exhibit. The company is using EIGRP with an autonomous system number of 10. Pings between
hosts on networks that are connected to router A and those that are connected to router B are successful.
However, users on the 192.168.3.0 network are unable to reach users on the 192.168.1.32 network. What is the
most likely cause of this problem?
IP classless is enabled and is causing the packet to drop.
*The command network 192.168.1.32 was not issued on router C.
The routers are not configured in the same EIGRP routing domain.
Automatic summarization of the networks is causing the subnetted routes to be dropped.

4
What information is maintained in the EIGRP topology database for a destination route? (Choose three.)
*the routing protocol
*the feasible distance of the route
the highest cost of the route
the SRTT value for the route
*the route cost as advertised by the neighboring router
the physical address of the gateway interface

5
On a router running EIGRP, what database would maintain a list of feasible successors?
routing table
neighbor table
*topology table
adjacency table

6

Refer to the exhibit. What is indicated by the P at the beginning of the topology entry?
*the route is in a stable state
the route is a preferred route
DUAL is searching for a better route to this destination
the exit interface is in passive mode and EIGRP advertisements are blocked

7
In the command router eigrp 20, what is the purpose of the number 20?
specifies the administrative distance for all EIGRP routes
*identifies the autonomous system number this EIGRP process will advertise
determines what metric is added to all advertised routes
indicates the number of addresses in the EIGRP routing domain

8

Refer to the exhibit. In the topology table, what do the numbers 3011840 and 3128695 represent?
the route metric that is applied to those EIGRP routes for this router
the trustworthiness of the routing information source
the composite of the hop count and bandwidth to that destination network
*the total metric for that network as advertised by the EIGRP neighbor

9 Which two statements describe characteristics of EIGRP? (Choose two.)
*EIGRP is a distance vector routing protocol.
*EIGRP supports classless routing and VLSM.
EIGRP is classified as a link-state routing protocol.
EIGRP uses TCP for reliable delivery of EIGRP update packets.
With EIGRP, loop-free paths are achieved through the use of hold-down timers.
EIGRP sends a periodic update every 30 minutes.

10

Refer to the exhibit. Network 192.168.0.0/28 goes down. What type of packet does Router2 immediately send
to Router1 and Router3?
a query for network 192.168.0.0/28
an acknowledgment packet to 224.0.0.9
an update packet that is sent to 255.255.255.255
a packet that contains the new routing table for R2
*unicast update packets to 192.168.1.1 and 192.168.2.1

11

Refer to the exhibit. Which command will advertise the 192.168.1.64/30 network but not the 192.168.1.32
network on router A?
network 192.168.1.0
network 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0
network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.3
*network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.7
network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.255


12 What administrative distance would a router assign to a default route in EIGRP that is learned from a source
external to the autonomous system?
1
5
70
90
*170
190

13 In which of the following tables does the EIGRP DUAL algorithm store the primary route to a destination?
(Choose two.)
*routing
*topology
neighbor
path
shortest path

14 Which of the following types of routes will be denoted by EX in EIGRP routing table entries? (Choose two.)
*routes learned from other routing protocols
routes learned from any non-adjacent EIGRP routers
any route with a hop count metric higher than 224
*EIGRP routes that originate in different autonomous systems
all passive routes in the routing table

15 Which term defines a collection of networks under the administrative control of a single entity that presents a
common routing policy to the Internet?
*autonomous system
contiguous networks
process ID
BGP

16

Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is the only routing protocol enabled on this network. No static routes are c
on this router. What can be concluded about network 198.18.1.0/24 from the exhibited output?
A route to network 198.18.1.0/24 is not listed in the routing table.
*Packets that are destined for 198.18.1.0/24 will be forwarded to 198.18.10.6.
EIGRP will perform equal cost load balancing across two paths when forwarding packets to 198.18

17

The router with interface 172.16.3.2 is a successor for network 198.18.1.0/24.
Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces have been configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the example
Assuming that all routers are using a default configuration of EIGRP as their routing protocol, what
packets take from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
*A,B,E
A,C,E
A,D,E
Packets will load balance across the A,B,E and A,C,E paths.
Packets will load balance across the A,B,E and A,D,E paths.
Packets will load balance across the A,C,E and A,D,E paths.


18
By default, which two metrics are used by EIGRP to determine the best path between networks?
MTU
load
*delay
*bandwidth
reliability

19
Which of the following statements describes the bounded updates used by EIGRP?
Bounded updates are sent to all routers within an autonomous system.
*Partial updates are sent only to routers that need the information.
The updates are sent to all routers in the routing table.
Updates are bounded by the routers in the topology table.

20
The show ip eigrp topology command output on a router displays a successor route and a feasible successor
route to network 192.168.1.0/24. In order to reduce processor utilization, what does EIGRP do when the
primary route to this network fails?
The router sends query packets to all EIGRP neighbors for a better route to network 192.168.1.0/24.
The DUAL FSM immediately recomputes the algorithm to calculate the next backup route.
Packets that are destined for network 192.168.1.0/24 are sent out the default gateway instead.
*The backup route to network 192.168.1.0/24 is installed in the routing table.

21

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of show ip eigrp neighbors, what are two possible problems with
adjacencies between Router1 and Router2? (Choose two.)
*The routers are configured with different EIGRP process IDs.
Automatic summarization was disabled.
The hello timer for R1 was altered.
*The serial interfaces for both routers are in different networks.
No feasible successors were found.

22

Refer to the exhibit. This is the debug output from 2 directly connected EIGRP routers. They are not
forming an adjacency. What is the cause?
one router is a non-cisco router
* they have different autonomous-system numbers
they are using difference sequence numbers
they are sending incorrect hello types

Read More

How To Become A True CCNA And To Get A CCNA job

The CCNA is an exciting beginning to your Cisco career, but just having the certification simply isn't enough. A recruiter or interviewer isn't going to be impressed just with the cert; you've got to have some real-world knowledge to back it up.
I've been down that road myself, and sat on both sides of the CCNA job interview table. With that in mind, I'd like to offer to you some tips on becoming a truly valuable and employable CCNA.
Get some hands-on experience. I know the trap well; you can't get experience until you get a CCNA, and you can't get a CCNA without real experience. Well, actually, you can, but do you want to? Working on simulators is fine to a certain extent, but don't make the classic mistake of depending on them. I've seen plenty of CCNAs who were put in front of a set of routers and really didn't know what to do or how to put together a simple configuration, and had NO idea how to begin troubleshooting.
There are CCNA classes that offer you the chance to work with industry experts on real Cisco equipment. Beyond that, you can put together your own CCNA rack for less than $1000 by buying used routers. Some people think that's a lot of money, but this is the foundation of your career. Treat it that way. The work you do now is the most important work you'll ever do. Do it on real Cisco equipment. The skills I learned as a CCNA helped me all the way up to the CCIE.
Besides, after you get your CCNA (and after that, hopefully you'll choose to pursue the CCNP), you can always get some of your money back by selling the equipment. The hands-on experience you gain this way is invaluable.
Know binary math. Do NOT go the easy route of memorizing a subnet mask chart for the CCNA exam. I know some people brag about being able to pass the CCNA exam without really understanding binary math. I've seen those people on the other side of the interview table, and they're not laughing when I ask them to do a subnetting question. They're not laughing when they can't explain or create a VLSM scheme. That chart does nothing to help you understand what's going on.
If you can add and know the difference between a one and a zero, you can do binary math. Don't let the name intimidate you. Become a REAL CCNA -- learn binary math !
Run "show" and "debug" commands. No commands help you truly understand how things work in a Cisco network than show and debug commands. As you progress through the Cisco certification ranks, you'll be glad you started using these at the CCNA level.
Do you need to know these commands for the exam? Probably not. Do you need them to be successul in the real world? Absolutely.
The Cisco certification track has been great to me, and it can boost your career as well, whether you stop at the CCNA, CCNP, or go all the way to the CCIE. It's the skills you develop today that will truly make you a networking engineer. Don't take shortcuts or get the attitude of "just passing the exam".
It's what you achieve after the exam that counts, and it's the work you put in before passing the exam that makes those achievements possible.

Read More

CCNA1 Chapter 8 (new)

1 Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?

**backbone cable
horizontal cable
patch cable
work area cable

2 In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?

BNC
RJ-11
**RJ-45
Type F

3 When is a straight-through cable used in a network?

when connecting a router through the console port
when connecting one switch to another switch
**when connecting a host to a switch
when connecting a router to another router

4 With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?

**the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously

5 Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?

Presentation
Transport
Data Link
**Physical

6 An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?

light injector
**OTDR
TDR
multimeter

7 XYZ Company is installing new cable runs on their data network. What two types of cable would most commonly be used for new runs? (Choose two.)

coax
Cat4 UTP
**Cat5 UTP
**Cat6 UTP
STP

8 What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?

Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
**Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.
An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.

9 What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)

**goodput
frequency
amplitude
**throughput
crosstalk
**bandwidth

10

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
coax cable
rollover cable
**crossover cable
straight-through cable

11 In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?

coax
**fiber
Cat5e UTP
Cat6 UTP
STP

12 Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?

13 Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?

electrical
optical
**wireless
acoustic

14 Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)

**It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
**It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.

15 Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?

generally uses LEDs as the light source
relatively larger core with multiple light paths
less expensive than multimode
**generally uses lasers as the light source

16 What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?

**more host mobility
lower security risks
reduced susceptibility to interference
less impact of the surroundings on the effective coverage area

17 What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?

the metal braiding in the shielding
the reflective cladding around core
**the twisting of the wires in the cable
the insulating material in the outer jacket

18 What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?

**create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
provide physical addressing to the devices
determine the path packets take through the network
control data access to the media

Read More

CCNA1 Chapter 7

1 Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three.)

**non-deterministic
**less overhead
one station transmits at a time
**collisions exist
devices must wait their turn
token passing

2 What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?

provide routes across the internetwork
format the data for presentation to the user
**facilitate the entry and exit of data on media
identify the services to which transported data is associated

3



Refer to the exhibit. How many unique CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?

1
2
4
**8
16

4 What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?

The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
Physical signal paths are defined by Data Link layer protocols.
**Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.

5



Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for http://www.server?

00-1c-41-ab-c0-00
**00-0c-85-cf-65-c0
00-0c-85-cf-65-c1
00-12-3f-32-05-af

6 What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)

**They are 48 binary bits in length.
**They are considered physical addresses.
**They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.
They consist of four eight-bit octets of binary numbers.
They are used to determine the data path through the network.
They must be changed when an Ethernet device is added or moved within the network.

7


Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)

source MAC - PC
source MAC - S0/0 on RouterA
**source MAC - Fa0/1 on RouterB
**source IP - PC
source IP - S0/0 on RouterA
source IP - Fa0/1 of RouterB

8 What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)

network layer addressing
**media sharing
application processes
**logical topology
intermediary device function

9 What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?

is used as a pad for data
identifies the source address
identifies the destination address
marks the end of timing information
**is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

10 What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

**Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card
Layer 2 identifies the applications that are communicating
**Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme
Layer 4 directs communication to the proper destination network
Layer 4 addresses are used by intermediary devices to forward data

11 Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)

Network usage is on a first come, first serve basis.
**Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
Data from a host is received by all other hosts.
**Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.
Token passing networks have problems with high collision rates.

12 Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?

LLC
**MAC
HDLC
NIC

13 What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)

**Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
**defined as placement of data frames on the media
contention-based access is also known as deterministic
802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD
**Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media
controlled access contains data collisions

14 What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?

The nodes are physically connected.
The physical arrangement of the nodes is restricted.
**The media access control protocol can be very simple.
The data link layer protocol used over the link requires a large frame header.

15 What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)

The Layer 2 address must be reassigned.
The default gateway address should not be changed.
**The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.
Applications and services will need additional port numbers assigned.
**The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.

16 What is a function of the data link layer?

provides the formatting of data
provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
provides delivery of data between two applications
**provides for the exchange data over a common local media

17 Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)

the Layer 3 protocol selected
**the geographic scope of the network
the PDU defined by the transport layer
**the physical layer implementation
**the number of hosts to be interconnected

18 What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?

define the logical topology
provide media access control
**support frame error detection
carry routing information for the frame

19 A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawing?

logical topology
**physical topology
cable path
wiring grid
access topology

20


Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?

All three networks use CSMA/CA
None of the networks require media access control.
**Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.
Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.
Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.

Read More

CCNA 1 Chapter 6

1) A user types http://www.cisco.com into a web browser address textbox. What does http://www.cisco.com represent?
* the IP address of a web server
a physical network address
the closest router interface to the source
the source IP address in the data transmission

2) What type of server would use IMAP?
DNS
DHCP
* e-mail
FTP
Telnet
web

3) Which type of server would most likely be used first by a network client in a corporate environment?
DNS
* DHCP
e-mail
FTP
Telnet
web

4) Which protocol is used by FTP to transfer files over the Internet?
* TCP
SMTP
UDP
SNMP

5) Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)
UDP
* FTP
IP
* SMTP
TCP

6) Which of the following are layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
* Application
Physical
* Internet
* Network Access
Presentation

7) You are creating a network-based video game. What influences your decision about which transport protocol to use for the application?
* UDP will not disrupt the game to retransmit dropped packets.
TCP provides extra acknowledgements that will ensure smooth video delivery.
Both TCP and UDP can be used simultaneously to ensure speed and guaranteed delivery.
Both TCP and UDP may slow transmission and disrupt game operation, so no transport protocol should be used.

8) Whenever e-mail clients send letters, what device is used to translate the domain names into their associated IP addresses?
Uniform Resource Locator
Network redirector server
SNMP server
* DNS server

9) Which application is most likely used to translate http://www.cisco.com to 198.133.219.25?
DHCP
* DNS
FTP
HTTP
POP
SMTP

10)

Refer to the graphic. Which protocol is used to access this website?
IM
FTP
* HTTP
SNMP
VoIP

11) Which port number is used by SMTP?
20
21
* 25
26
110

12) Which protocol is used by e-mail servers to communicate with each other?
FTP
HTTP
TFTP
* SMTP
POP
SNMP

13) What client software enables logged in users to communicate with other logged in users in real time?
blog
e-mail
web mail
* instant messaging

14) An Internet server is running both FTP and HTTP services. How does the server know which of these applications should handle an incoming segment?
The packet header identifies it as an HTTP or FTP packet.
The data in the segment is specially formatted for either HTTP or FTP.
* The segment destination port number identifies the application that should handle it.
The source port number is associated with one of these well known server applications.

15) What term is used to describe how TCP/IP protocols are layered and interact to format, address, and transmit information across a network?
protocol hierarchy
protocol modeling
* protocol stack
protocol layering

16) hat three items are contained in an Ethernet frame? (Choose three.)
source IP address
* source MAC address
destination IP address
* destination MAC address
* error-checking information

17) What information is contained in an IP header?
* source and destination IP addresses
source and destination MAC addresses
only destination IP and MAC addresses
both source and destination IP and MAC addresses

18) Cabling issues are associated with which OSI layer?
4
2
* 1
3

19) A device receives an Ethernet frame and recognizes the MAC address as its own. What does the device do to the message to get to the encapsulated data?
removes the IP header
removes the TCP header
passes data to the application layer
* removes the Ethernet header and trailer

20) A client has decoded a frame and started the de-encapsulation process. In which order does the de-encapsulation process occur?
1) remove IP header
2) remove Ethernet header and trailer
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application

1) add TCP header to data
2) add an IP header
3) add frame header and trailer
4) encode the frame into bits

* 1) remove Ethernet header and trailer
2) remove IP header
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application

1) add TCP header to data
2) add Ethernet header and trailer
3) add an IP header
4) encode the frame into bits

21) What is an advantage of the use of layers in the OSI reference model?
It breaks network communications into larger parts.
It increases complexity.
* It prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers.
It requires the use of single-vendor equipment for hardware and software communications.

22) What is the correct order of the layers of the OSI reference model, starting at the lowest layer and working up the model?
data link, physical, transport, network, presentation, session, application
physical, data link, network, session, transport, presentation, application
physical, data link, network, transport, presentation, session, application
* physical, data link, network, transport, session, presentation, application
application, session, presentation, transport, data link, network, physical

Read More

10 Things You Should Know About the Cisco CCNA Security Certification

The new Cisco CCNA Security certification can help you verify the specialized security skills that are in high demand among employers.

Not sure if the CCNA Security certification is the right path for your career? Read on for information and resource links that will help in your decision making.

1. What industry trends motivated Cisco to create the CCNA Security certification?
Cisco created the CCNA Security certification to offer new IT professionals a rapid path to specialization in security as well as to offer experienced networking professionals a path to enhancing their careers with new security knowledge and skills. Security skills are one of the highest-demand areas in the networking job market. IT organizations need staff with the specialized knowledge and skills to administer devices and applications in a security infrastructure, recognize network vulnerabilities, and detect security threats.

2. What do employers say about their needs for people with this type of knowledge
and skill?
More than any other area, security and risk management skills are some of the most highly sought after skills across the network, and demand is continuing to grow. Within five years, dedicated security roles are  xpected to exist in 80 percent of the companies studied versus today's dedicated security tole, which exists in only 46 percent of the companies surveyed

3. Where will the CCNA Security certification be the most relevant?
Through the CCNA Security training, you will gain an overview of security challenges and solutions, and be able to install, monitor, and troubleshoot Cisco security solutions to secure a small branch office network. Cisco IOS security features on Cisco routers and switches are deployed using both graphical user interface tools (GUIs such as the Cisco Security Device Manager or SDM) and command line interfaces (CLIs). You will also understand the necessity of a comprehensive security policy and how it affects the posture of the network.

4. Is the CCNA Security path right for you?

The choice to pursue a networking specialist or generalist path is an important career decision. Your interests, the jobs available in your area, and other factors will likely influence your choice.
Your potential salary is another important factor. Industry surveys show that IT specialists receive higher compensation. TCPmag.com reports in a 2006-2007 survey that workers holding a Cisco CCSP certification had an average annual salary of nearly US$94,000. All of the CCNA concentrations help you to distinguish yourself in the highly competitive world of IT networking. CCNA Security takes full advantage of your current CCNA certification as a foundation, while specifically preparing you for new career opportunities in
network security.
CCNA remains the certification of choice for individuals who want to demonstrate a solid foundation in core routing and switching skills, and then later advance as network generalists.

5. Will the CCNA Security concentration lead to higher-level certifications?

The CCNA Security certification is the prerequisite for the Cisco CCSP professional-level certification. A CCSP certification is excellent preparation for attaining the highest Cisco security designation, the Cisco CCIE Security certification. However, the CCIE Security certification has no prerequisites.

6. If i already have a CCNA certification, what's best path to becoming a security specialist?
With the introduction of the CCNA concentrations, Cisco has changed the prerequisites and paths to higher-level certifications. To become a security specialist, one possible path is shown below:

7. Are there any prerequisites for the CCNA Security certification?

Holding the CCNA certification is required before you can earn the CCNA Security certification. You may take one or more CCNA concentration exams without retaking original CCNA exams. Through November 17, 2011, the CCNA + SND exam from the CCSP certification will be accepted as a pre-requisite for CCSP in addition to CCNA Security to accommodate those in process or starting their CCSP.

8. Is any training available or required for the CCNA Security certification?

Training for all new CCNA concentrations is available through Learning Solutions Partners and Learning Partners.

As of mid-2008, instructor-led classroom training courses are only available through Cisco Learning Partners. For CCNA Security, the recommended training is Implementing Cisco IOS Network Security (IINS), a five-day classroom course with labs that simulate real-world scenarios.
Cisco Press will offer corresponding products for each CCNA concentration. In addition to their best-selling exam certification guides, Cisco Press will offer digital quick reference guides and other online materials to help you prepare for the CCNA Security exam.

9. What are the details about the CCNA Security course and exam?

Only one exam is required for the CCNA Security certification: Cisco 640-553 IINS. To prepare for the exam, the suggested IINS training course covers network security principles, perimeter security, LAN/SAN/voice/endpoint security, Cisco IOS firewalls, Cisco IOS intrusion protection systems (IPS), and site-to-site VPNs. In-classroom labs enhance the learning experience.

You will develop skills for installation, troubleshooting, and monitoring of network devices to maintain integrity, confidentiality, and availability of data and devices and develop competency in the technologies that Cisco uses in its security infrastructure.

10. Where can I get more information about the CCNA Security concentration?

Technical requirements and information about the CCNA Security can be found here on the Cisco Learning Network.

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Cisco IOS Commands – Using Extended Ping For Network Troubleshooting

The extended ping command is a very important part of any network engineer’s Cisco IOS commands knowledge.  Many beginners do not know how to use this command effectively, but it is definitely a must-know and can isolate many network issues.  In this post, I’ll go through some of the most important and useful parameters of this command:

Target IP address

The target IP address is the IP you want to send the ping/ICMP packet to.  This is fairly straightforward, but one important note that if this IP is not routable from this router, you won’t be able to reach it, and will get no replies.  The next step would be to do a traceroute to further isolate the issue.

Repeat count

Some physical line problems might only show up upon repeated ping tests.  If it’s an intermittent issue, it’s best to put a larger number to simulate a stress test in order to ensure that there are no issues.  For example, 1,000 or 10,000 packets might be a suitable number.

Datagram size

For stress test purposes, you can put a larger number in the datagram size to test for larger packets.  It is not recommended to put a datagram size larger than the maximum MTU size of all the routers along the routing path as this would mean the packets would be fragmented (unless you are testing whether fragmentation is working properly).  For an TCP/IP network running on ethernet, a good datagram size to use is 1500.
Some issues might also only show up with larger datagram sizes.  These are usually related to some fragmentation issue along the way.  It makes sense to test with larger datagram sizes as well as small ones in order to be sure.

Source address or interface

This part of the extended ping command is very useful to test whether it’s a routing issue or a switching issue.  If you reach the directly connected router for a problematic host, and pings are successful when sourced from a directly connected interface (but not from another interface which is not directly connected), it usually indicates a routing configuration or process issue on that router, since no routing is needed for directly connected interfaces.

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Setting Up Access List On Cisco Router

In this Example will open ports for need to use out of using will close it alls.
This case no have inside (internal) server.
Step for setting Up :
Router#conf t
Router(config)#access-list 100 permit tcp any any range 20 23
Router(config)#access-list 100 permit tcp any any eq 25
Router(config)#access-list 100 permit tcp any any eq 53
Router(config)#access-list 100 permit tcp any any eq 80
Router(config)#access-list 100 permit tcp any any eq 110
Router(config)#access-list 100 permit tcp any any eq 143
Router(config)#access-list 100 permit tcp any any eq 443
Router(config)#access-list 100 permit udp any any eq 53
Router(config)#access-list 100 permit udp any any eq 161
Router(config)#access-list 100 permit tcp any any eq 3306
Router(config)#access-list 100 permit icmp any any echo
Router(config)#access-list 100 deny ip any any
Router(config)#int f0
Router(config-if)#ip access-group 100 in

This case : have inside (internal server)
Server IP for this case as below :
Web Server : 202.129.49.194
FTP Server : 202.129.49.195
DNS Server : 202.129.49.196
Mail Server : 202.129.49.197
Step for Setting Up :
Router#conf t
Router(config)#access-list 100 permit tcp any any range 20 23
Router(config)#access-list 100 permit tcp any any eq 25
Router(config)#access-list 100 permit tcp any any eq 53
Router(config)#access-list 100 permit tcp any any eq 80
Router(config)#access-list 100 permit tcp any any eq 110
Router(config)#access-list 100 permit tcp any any eq 143
Router(config)#access-list 100 permit tcp any any eq 443
Router(config)#access-list 100 permit udp any any eq 53
Router(config)#access-list 100 permit udp any any eq 161
Router(config)#access-list 100 permit tcp any any eq 3306
Router(config)#access-list 100 permit icmp any any echo
Router(config)#access-list 100 permit tcp host 202.129.49.194 eq 80 any
Router(config)#access-list 100 permit tcp host 202.129.49.195 any < For FTP Server >
Router(config)#access-list 100 permit tcp host 202.129.49.196 eq 53 any < For DNS Server : tcp>
Router(config)#access-list 100 permit udp host 202.129.49.196 eq 53 any < For DNS Server : udp >
Router(config)#access-list 100 permit tcp host 202.129.49.197 eq 25 any < For SMTP>
Router(config)#access-list 100 permit tcp host 202.129.49.197 eq 110 any < For pop3>
Router(config)#access-list 100 permit tcp host 202.129.49.197 eq 143 any < For imap>
Router(config)#access-list 100 deny ip any any
Router(config)#int f0
Router(config-if)#ip access-group 100 in
Hope this topic will help you fixed out about setting up access list on cisco router

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