1. Which AAA service reduces IT operating costs by providing detailed reporting and monitoring of network user behavior, and also by keeping a record of every access connection and device configuration change across the network?
authentication
accreditation
accounting
authorization
2. Which three items are normally included when a log message is generated by a syslog client and forwarded to a syslog server? (Choose three.)
date and time of message
ID of sending device
length of message
message ID
checksum field
community ID
3. What is the advantage of using WPA to secure a wireless network?
It uses a 128-bit pre-shared hexadecimal key to prevent unauthorized wireless access.
It uses an advanced encryption key that is never transmitted between host and access point.
It is supported on older wireless hardware, thus providing maximum compatibility with enterprise equipment.
It requires the MAC address of a network device that is requesting wireless access to be on a list of approved MAC addresses.
4. A company wants to configure a firewall to monitor all channels of communication and allow only traffic that is part of a known connection. Which firewall configuration should be deployed?
packet filtering
proxy
stateful packet inspection
stateless packet inspection
5. A server log includes this entry: User student accessed host server ABC using Telnet yesterday for 10 minutes. What type of log entry is this?
authentication
authorization
accounting
accessing
6. What two measures help to verify that server backups have been reliably completed? (Choose two.)
reviewing backup logs
performing trial backups
performing full backups only
replacing tape backup with hard disk-based backup
using an autoloader when backups require more than one tape
7. Which means of communication does an SNMP network agent use to provide a network management station with important but unsolicited information?
query
broadcast
ICMP ping
trap
poll
8. Which three protocols are used for in-band management? (Choose three.)
FTP
HTTP
SNMP
Telnet
TFTP
DHCP
9. A hacker has gained access to sensitive network files. In analyzing the attack, it is found that the hacker gained access over a wireless segment of the network. It is further discovered that the only security measure in place on the wireless network is MAC Address Filtering. How is it likely that the hacker gained access to the network?
The hacker used a software tool to crack the shared hexadecimal wireless key.
The hacker obtained the MAC address of a permitted host, and cloned it on his wireless laptop NIC.
The attacker mounted a denial of service attack to overwhelm the firewall before penetrating the wireless LAN.
The hacker gained wireless access to the MAC address database and added his own MAC address to the list of permitted addresses.
10. A network administrator is assigning network permissions to new groups of users and employing the principle of least privilege. Which two actions should the administrator take? (Choose two.)
Provide users with only the access to resources required to do their jobs.
Provide the minimum level of permissions required for users to do their jobs.
Remove all permissions from the users and grant permissions as they are requested.
Allow users to decide how much permission they need to accomplish their job tasks.
Provide full access to the users and gradually remove privileges over time.
11. Which three protocols describe methods that can be used to secure user data for transmission across the internet? (Choose three.)
SMTP
IPSEC
SSL
HTTPS
FTP
TFTP
12. Which benefit does SSH offer over Telnet when remotely managing a router?
encryption
TCP usage
authorization
connection using six VTY lines
13. Which of the following does SNMP use to hold information collected about the network?
network management station
network management database
management information base
database information agent
14. What are two potential problems with using tape media to back up server data? (Choose two.)
Tape is not a cost-effective means of backing up data.
Data tapes are difficult to store offsite.
Data tapes are prone to failure and must be replaced often.
Tape drives require regular cleaning to maintain reliability.
Backup logs are not available with tape backup solutions.
15. What is the term for the public network between the boundary router and the firewall?
"clean" LAN
intranet
DMZ
extranet
16. Which two characteristics of network traffic are being monitored if a network technician configures the company firewall to operate as a packet filter? (Choose two.)
applications
physical addresses
packet size
ports
protocols
17. When is the use of out-of-band network management necessary?
when a server needs to be monitored across the network
when the management interface of a device is not reachable across the network
when enhanced monitoring features are required to gain an overall view of the entire network
when it is desirable to use the information that is provided by SNMP
18. What network layer security protocol can secure any application layer protocol used for communication?
HTTPS
IMAP
FTPS
IPSEC
TLS
19. Before a technician upgrades a server, it is necessary to back up all data. Which type of backup is necessary to ensure that all data is backed up?
daily
differential
full
incremental
partial
20. What AAA component assigns varying levels of rights to users of network resources?
auditing
accounting
authorization
access control
authentication
acknowledgement
Aug 29, 2009
Aug 27, 2009
CCNA2 Chapter 7 (100%)
1. Which two statements are true about the OSI and TCP/IP models? (Choose two.)
The two bottom layers of the TCP/IP model make up the bottom layer of the OSI model.
The TCP/IP model is a theoretical model and the OSI model is based on actual protocols.
**The OSI network layer is comparable to the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model.
The TCP/IP model specifies protocols for the physical network interconnection.
**The TCP/IP model is based on four layers and the OSI model is based on seven layers.
2. To meet customer expectations, an ISP must guarantee a level of service that is based on what two factors? (Choose two.)
accessibility
adaptability
**availability
**reliability
scalability
3. User1 is sending an e-mail to User2@cisco.com. What are two characteristics of the process of sending this data? (Choose two.)
It utilizes TCP port 110.
A TCP connection is established directly between the User1 and User2 client computers in order to send the e-mail message.
**It utilizes a store and forward process.
The same application layer protocol is used to send the e-mail and retrieve it from the destination server.
**SMTP is used to send the e-mail message to the mail servers.
4. Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next?
Host1 sends an ACK message to Host2.
Host1 sends a SYN message to Host2.
Host1 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host2.
Host2 sends an ACK message to Host1.
Host2 sends a SYN message to Host1.
**Host2 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host1.
5. What are three characteristics of network reliability? (Choose three.)
**Redundant hardware provides enhanced reliability.
Reliability is measured as a percent.
Reliability is the responsibility of the ISP customers.
**Fault tolerance is a measure of reliability.
**The longer the MTBF, the greater the reliability.
6. Which two statements describe the FTP protocol? (Choose two.)
It uses well-known port 23.
The protocol interpreter is responsible for the data transfer function.
**In passive data connections, the FTP client initiates the transfer of data.
**It requires two connections between client and server.
FTP servers open a well-known port on the client machine.
7. What is the function of the TCP three-way handshake?
It enables the synchronization of port numbers between source and destination hosts.
It immediately triggers the retransmission of lost data.
**It synchronizes both ends of a connection by allowing both sides to agree upon initial sequence numbers.
It identifies the destination application on the receiving host.
8. What are three characteristics of HTTPS? (Choose three.)
It uses a different client request-server response process than HTTP uses.
It specifies additional rules for passing data between the application and data link layers.
**It supports authentication.
It allows more simultaneous connections than HTTP allows.
**It encrypts packets with SSL.
**It requires additional server processing time.
9. Which DNS zone resolves an IP address to a qualified domain name?
dynamic lookup
forward lookup
resolution lookup
**reverse lookup
10. What type of update allows client computers to register and update their resource records with a DNS server whenever changes occur?
**dynamic
zone transfer
local recursive query
root domain query
top-level domain query
11. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this file? (Choose two.)
If the gateway address changes, the file will be updated dynamically.
**The command ping fileserv will use IP address 172.16.5.10.
**If the ping www.cisco.com command is issued, the file will be checked for the Cisco web server IP address before DNS is queried.
The file must be created by the user if it is to be used by a workstation.
Name to IP address mappings are added to the file after they are received from DNS.
12. Which two tasks are the responsibility of the local DNS server? (Choose two.)
maintaining a large number of cached DNS entries
maintaining the ISP server
**mapping name-to-IP addresses for internal hosts
**forwarding name resolution requests to a caching-only server
forwarding all name resolution requests to root servers on the Internet
13. What are three unique characteristics of UDP? (Choose three.)
connection oriented
full-duplex operation
**low overhead
**no flow control
**no error-recovery function
reliable transmission
14. A manufacturing company is looking into subscribing to services from a new ISP. The company requires hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail services. Which three protocols represent the key application services that are required by the company? (Choose three.)
**FTP
**HTTP
ICMP
PPP
Telnet
**SMTP
15. Which two options correctly match protocol and well-known port number? (Choose two.)
DNS - 25
**FTP - 110
HTTP - 80
POP3 - 25
**SMTP - 25
16. Within TCP, what combination makes up a socket pair?
source port with destination port
source IP address with destination port
source IP address and destination IP address
**source IP address and port with a destination IP address and port
17. Which protocol is used to send e-mail, either from a client to a server or from a server to another server?
SNMP
FTP
**SMTP
HTTPS
18. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is requesting HTTP data from the server. What is a valid representation of source and destination sockets for this request?
Source - 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:80
Source - 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:1045
**Source - 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:80
Source - 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:1061
19. What type of DNS server is typically maintained by an ISP?
**caching-only
root
second-level
top-level
20. A client is communicating with a server on a different segment of the network. How does the server determine what service is being requested by the client?
The server will apply the default service configured in directory services.
The server will use ARP to discover the appropriate service from the local router.
The server will send a request to the client asking for the appropriate service.
**The server will determine the appropriate service from the destination port field.
21. When a host is communicating with multiple applications on the same server at the same time, which of the following will have the same value for each session? (Choose two.)
**IP address
**MAC address
session number
sequence number
The two bottom layers of the TCP/IP model make up the bottom layer of the OSI model.
The TCP/IP model is a theoretical model and the OSI model is based on actual protocols.
**The OSI network layer is comparable to the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model.
The TCP/IP model specifies protocols for the physical network interconnection.
**The TCP/IP model is based on four layers and the OSI model is based on seven layers.
2. To meet customer expectations, an ISP must guarantee a level of service that is based on what two factors? (Choose two.)
accessibility
adaptability
**availability
**reliability
scalability
3. User1 is sending an e-mail to User2@cisco.com. What are two characteristics of the process of sending this data? (Choose two.)
It utilizes TCP port 110.
A TCP connection is established directly between the User1 and User2 client computers in order to send the e-mail message.
**It utilizes a store and forward process.
The same application layer protocol is used to send the e-mail and retrieve it from the destination server.
**SMTP is used to send the e-mail message to the mail servers.
4. Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next?
Host1 sends an ACK message to Host2.
Host1 sends a SYN message to Host2.
Host1 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host2.
Host2 sends an ACK message to Host1.
Host2 sends a SYN message to Host1.
**Host2 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host1.
5. What are three characteristics of network reliability? (Choose three.)
**Redundant hardware provides enhanced reliability.
Reliability is measured as a percent.
Reliability is the responsibility of the ISP customers.
**Fault tolerance is a measure of reliability.
**The longer the MTBF, the greater the reliability.
6. Which two statements describe the FTP protocol? (Choose two.)
It uses well-known port 23.
The protocol interpreter is responsible for the data transfer function.
**In passive data connections, the FTP client initiates the transfer of data.
**It requires two connections between client and server.
FTP servers open a well-known port on the client machine.
7. What is the function of the TCP three-way handshake?
It enables the synchronization of port numbers between source and destination hosts.
It immediately triggers the retransmission of lost data.
**It synchronizes both ends of a connection by allowing both sides to agree upon initial sequence numbers.
It identifies the destination application on the receiving host.
8. What are three characteristics of HTTPS? (Choose three.)
It uses a different client request-server response process than HTTP uses.
It specifies additional rules for passing data between the application and data link layers.
**It supports authentication.
It allows more simultaneous connections than HTTP allows.
**It encrypts packets with SSL.
**It requires additional server processing time.
9. Which DNS zone resolves an IP address to a qualified domain name?
dynamic lookup
forward lookup
resolution lookup
**reverse lookup
10. What type of update allows client computers to register and update their resource records with a DNS server whenever changes occur?
**dynamic
zone transfer
local recursive query
root domain query
top-level domain query
11. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this file? (Choose two.)
If the gateway address changes, the file will be updated dynamically.
**The command ping fileserv will use IP address 172.16.5.10.
**If the ping www.cisco.com command is issued, the file will be checked for the Cisco web server IP address before DNS is queried.
The file must be created by the user if it is to be used by a workstation.
Name to IP address mappings are added to the file after they are received from DNS.
12. Which two tasks are the responsibility of the local DNS server? (Choose two.)
maintaining a large number of cached DNS entries
maintaining the ISP server
**mapping name-to-IP addresses for internal hosts
**forwarding name resolution requests to a caching-only server
forwarding all name resolution requests to root servers on the Internet
13. What are three unique characteristics of UDP? (Choose three.)
connection oriented
full-duplex operation
**low overhead
**no flow control
**no error-recovery function
reliable transmission
14. A manufacturing company is looking into subscribing to services from a new ISP. The company requires hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail services. Which three protocols represent the key application services that are required by the company? (Choose three.)
**FTP
**HTTP
ICMP
PPP
Telnet
**SMTP
15. Which two options correctly match protocol and well-known port number? (Choose two.)
DNS - 25
**FTP - 110
HTTP - 80
POP3 - 25
**SMTP - 25
16. Within TCP, what combination makes up a socket pair?
source port with destination port
source IP address with destination port
source IP address and destination IP address
**source IP address and port with a destination IP address and port
17. Which protocol is used to send e-mail, either from a client to a server or from a server to another server?
SNMP
FTP
**SMTP
HTTPS
18. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is requesting HTTP data from the server. What is a valid representation of source and destination sockets for this request?
Source - 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:80
Source - 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:1045
**Source - 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:80
Source - 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:1061
19. What type of DNS server is typically maintained by an ISP?
**caching-only
root
second-level
top-level
20. A client is communicating with a server on a different segment of the network. How does the server determine what service is being requested by the client?
The server will apply the default service configured in directory services.
The server will use ARP to discover the appropriate service from the local router.
The server will send a request to the client asking for the appropriate service.
**The server will determine the appropriate service from the destination port field.
21. When a host is communicating with multiple applications on the same server at the same time, which of the following will have the same value for each session? (Choose two.)
**IP address
**MAC address
session number
sequence number
Aug 26, 2009
Cisco 640-802 CCNA
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CCNA2 Chapter 6 V4.1 (true 100%)
Chapter 6 With 100% Accurate Answers
1. Which command is used to view the RIP routing protocol settings and configuration?
show version
show ip route
show interface
**show ip protocols
2. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of RIP routers that could separate HostA and HostB and still leave the hosts with connectivity to each other?
14
15
**16
17
3. In which situation would a company register for its own autonomous system number (ASN)?
when the company's ISP adds connection points to the Internet
when additional routers are added to the corporate internetwork
when more than one interior routing protocol is used
**when the company uses two or more ISPs
4. Consider this routing table entry
R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 200.1.1.1 00:00:27 Serial0/1
What type of route is this?
a static route
a default route
**a RIP route
an OSPF route
an EIGRP route
a directly-connected route
5. What is the difference between interior and exterior routing protocols?
Exterior routing protocols are only used by large ISPs. Interior routing protocols are used by small ISPs.
Interior routing protocols are used to route on the Internet. Exterior routing protocols are used inside organizations.
Exterior routing protocols are used to administer a single autonomous system. Interior routing protocols are used to administer several domains.
**Interior routing protocols are used to communicate within a single autonomous system. Exterior routing protocols are used to communicate between multiple autonomous systems.
6. What information is included in RIPv2 routing updates that is not included in RIPv1 updates?
metric
**subnet mask
area identification
hop count
autonomous system number
7. Which routing protocol is used to exchange data between two different ISPs?
**BGP
EIGRP
OSPF
RIP v2
8. Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command or commands contributed to the output that is shown?
routerA(config-router)# no version 2
routerA(config)# interface fa0/0
routerA(config-if)# ip address 172.19.0.0 255.255.0.0
**routerA(config-router)# network 192.168.3.0
routerA(config)# no ip default-gateway
9. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP and network 10.0.0.0 goes down, when will R3 learn that the network is no longer available?
in 30 seconds
in 60 seconds
in 90 seconds
**Immediately
10. What statement is true regarding an AS number?
AS numbers are controlled and registered for Internet use.
Interior routing protocols require registered AS numbers.
ISPs require all customers to have registered AS numbers.
All routers at an ISP must be assigned the same AS number.
11. What is the purpose of the network command used when configuring RIP?
to specify whether RIPv1 or RIPv2 will be used as the routing protocol
to allow the router to monitor RIP updates that occur on other routers
**to identify which networks on the router will send and receive RIP updates
to configure the IP address on an interface that will use RIP
to identify all of the remote networks that should be reachable from the router
12. Which command would a network administrator use to determine if the routers in an enterprise have learned about a newly added network?
router# show ip address
router# show ip route
**router# show ip networks
router# show ip interface brief
router# debug ip protocol
router# debug rip update
13. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.
It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.
It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.
**It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.
It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet forwarding.
14. What device enables an ISP to connect with other ISPs to transfer data?
**border gateway router
DSLAM
web server
interior router
15. Which command will display RIP routing updates as they are sent and received?
show ip route
show ip rip
debug ip rip
show ip protocols
**show ip rip database
16. Which part of an IP packet does the router use to make routing decisions?
source IP address
source MAC address
**destination IP address
destination MAC address
17. What two types of businesses would benefit from registering as their own autonomous systems? (Choose two.)
a home business with one ISP connection
**a global business with connections to multiple local ISPs
**a medium-sized nationwide business with Internet connectivity through different ISPs
a large enterprise with two connections to the same ISP
a small ISP with a single Internet connection through a larger ISP
18. Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?
debug ip rip
show ip route
show ip interface
show ip protocols
debug ip rip config
**show ip rip database
19. Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
**Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged.
Hosts are unable to access their gateway until the network has converged.
Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.
Routers will not allow configuration changes to be made until the network has converged.
20. Which two statements describe static routes? (Choose two.)
They are created in interface configuration mode.
**They require manual reconfiguration to accommodate network changes.
They automatically become the default gateway of the router.
**They are identified in the routing table with the prefix S
They are automatically updated whenever an interface is reconfigured or shutdown.
21. Which two statements or sets of statements describe differences between link-state and distance vector routing protocols? (Choose two.)
Link-state routing protocols routinely use more bandwidth for updates than do distance vector routing protocols.
Distance vector routing protocols update all routers at one time. Link-state routing protocols update one router at a time.
**Link-state routers only know about directly connected routers. Distance vector routers know about every router in the network.
**Link-state routing protocols update when a change is made. A network using distance vector routing protocols only updates at a specific interval.
Distance vector routing protocols have limited information about the entire network. Link state routing protocols know about all routers in the network.
In case of similar topologies, networks using link-state routing protocols typically converge more rapidly than do networks using distance vector routing protocols.
22. Which protocol is an exterior routing protocol?
**BGP
EIGRP
OSPF
RIP
23. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
**Ping
show arp
**Traceroute
**show ip route
show interface
show cdp neighbor detail
24. What term refers to a group of networks that uses the same internal routing policies and is controlled by a single administrative authority?
Internet
intranet
virtual private network
**autonomous system
1. Which command is used to view the RIP routing protocol settings and configuration?
show version
show ip route
show interface
**show ip protocols
2. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of RIP routers that could separate HostA and HostB and still leave the hosts with connectivity to each other?
14
15
**16
17
3. In which situation would a company register for its own autonomous system number (ASN)?
when the company's ISP adds connection points to the Internet
when additional routers are added to the corporate internetwork
when more than one interior routing protocol is used
**when the company uses two or more ISPs
4. Consider this routing table entry
R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 200.1.1.1 00:00:27 Serial0/1
What type of route is this?
a static route
a default route
**a RIP route
an OSPF route
an EIGRP route
a directly-connected route
5. What is the difference between interior and exterior routing protocols?
Exterior routing protocols are only used by large ISPs. Interior routing protocols are used by small ISPs.
Interior routing protocols are used to route on the Internet. Exterior routing protocols are used inside organizations.
Exterior routing protocols are used to administer a single autonomous system. Interior routing protocols are used to administer several domains.
**Interior routing protocols are used to communicate within a single autonomous system. Exterior routing protocols are used to communicate between multiple autonomous systems.
6. What information is included in RIPv2 routing updates that is not included in RIPv1 updates?
metric
**subnet mask
area identification
hop count
autonomous system number
7. Which routing protocol is used to exchange data between two different ISPs?
**BGP
EIGRP
OSPF
RIP v2
8. Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command or commands contributed to the output that is shown?
routerA(config-router)# no version 2
routerA(config)# interface fa0/0
routerA(config-if)# ip address 172.19.0.0 255.255.0.0
**routerA(config-router)# network 192.168.3.0
routerA(config)# no ip default-gateway
9. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP and network 10.0.0.0 goes down, when will R3 learn that the network is no longer available?
in 30 seconds
in 60 seconds
in 90 seconds
**Immediately
10. What statement is true regarding an AS number?
AS numbers are controlled and registered for Internet use.
Interior routing protocols require registered AS numbers.
ISPs require all customers to have registered AS numbers.
All routers at an ISP must be assigned the same AS number.
11. What is the purpose of the network command used when configuring RIP?
to specify whether RIPv1 or RIPv2 will be used as the routing protocol
to allow the router to monitor RIP updates that occur on other routers
**to identify which networks on the router will send and receive RIP updates
to configure the IP address on an interface that will use RIP
to identify all of the remote networks that should be reachable from the router
12. Which command would a network administrator use to determine if the routers in an enterprise have learned about a newly added network?
router# show ip address
router# show ip route
**router# show ip networks
router# show ip interface brief
router# debug ip protocol
router# debug rip update
13. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.
It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.
It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.
**It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.
It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet forwarding.
14. What device enables an ISP to connect with other ISPs to transfer data?
**border gateway router
DSLAM
web server
interior router
15. Which command will display RIP routing updates as they are sent and received?
show ip route
show ip rip
debug ip rip
show ip protocols
**show ip rip database
16. Which part of an IP packet does the router use to make routing decisions?
source IP address
source MAC address
**destination IP address
destination MAC address
17. What two types of businesses would benefit from registering as their own autonomous systems? (Choose two.)
a home business with one ISP connection
**a global business with connections to multiple local ISPs
**a medium-sized nationwide business with Internet connectivity through different ISPs
a large enterprise with two connections to the same ISP
a small ISP with a single Internet connection through a larger ISP
18. Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?
debug ip rip
show ip route
show ip interface
show ip protocols
debug ip rip config
**show ip rip database
19. Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
**Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged.
Hosts are unable to access their gateway until the network has converged.
Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.
Routers will not allow configuration changes to be made until the network has converged.
20. Which two statements describe static routes? (Choose two.)
They are created in interface configuration mode.
**They require manual reconfiguration to accommodate network changes.
They automatically become the default gateway of the router.
**They are identified in the routing table with the prefix S
They are automatically updated whenever an interface is reconfigured or shutdown.
21. Which two statements or sets of statements describe differences between link-state and distance vector routing protocols? (Choose two.)
Link-state routing protocols routinely use more bandwidth for updates than do distance vector routing protocols.
Distance vector routing protocols update all routers at one time. Link-state routing protocols update one router at a time.
**Link-state routers only know about directly connected routers. Distance vector routers know about every router in the network.
**Link-state routing protocols update when a change is made. A network using distance vector routing protocols only updates at a specific interval.
Distance vector routing protocols have limited information about the entire network. Link state routing protocols know about all routers in the network.
In case of similar topologies, networks using link-state routing protocols typically converge more rapidly than do networks using distance vector routing protocols.
22. Which protocol is an exterior routing protocol?
**BGP
EIGRP
OSPF
RIP
23. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
**Ping
show arp
**Traceroute
**show ip route
show interface
show cdp neighbor detail
24. What term refers to a group of networks that uses the same internal routing policies and is controlled by a single administrative authority?
Internet
intranet
virtual private network
**autonomous system
Aug 25, 2009
CCNA2 Chapter 5 V4.1 (true 100%)
Chapter 5 With 100% Accurate Answers
1. In what two ways does SDM differ from the IOS CLI? (Choose two.)
**SDM is used for in-band management only. The IOS CLI can be used for in-band and out-of-band management.
SDM is accessed through a Telnet application. The IOS CLI is accessed through a web browser.
SDM is available for all router platforms. The IOS CLI is available for a limited number of Cisco devices.
**SDM utilizes GUI buttons and text boxes. The IOS CLI requires the use of text-based commands.
SDM is used for advanced configuration tasks. The IOS CLI is preferred for initial basic device configuration.
2. Which mode will a configured router display at login?
global configuration mode
setup mode
ROM monitor mode
**user EXEC mode
3. Refer to the exhibit. Which password or passwords will be encrypted as a result of the configuration that is shown?
virtual terminal only
enable mode only
console and virtual terminal only
enable mode and virtual terminal
only the service password
**all configured passwords
4. Refer to the exhibit. Which three sets of commands are required to enable administrators to connect to the Switch1 console over Telnet for configuration and management? (Choose three.)
**Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.64 255.255.255.192
**Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.66 255.255.255.192
**Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.126 255.255.255.192
Switch1(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch1(config)# line vty 0 4
Switch1(config-line)# enable password cisco
Switch1(config-line)# login
Switch1(config)# line vty 0 15
Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
Switch1(config-line)# login
Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.2.65
5. How does the SYST LED on the catalyst 2960 switch indicate a POST failure?
blinks rapidly amber
blinks rapidly green
**steady amber
steady green
6. Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to configure switch X with a default gateway. Assuming that the switch IP address is 192.168.5.147/24, what command will the administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch?
**X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.254
X(config)# ip gateway 192.168.5.1
X(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.5.1
X(config)# ip default-route 192.168.5.1
X(config)# ip route 192.168.5.254 255.255.255.0 fastethernet 0/0
7. A technician has made changes to the configuration of a router. What command will allow the technician to view the current configuration before he saves the changes?
**router# show running-config
router# show startup-config
router# show flash
router# show version
8. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
**VTY interface
**console interface
Ethernet interface
secret EXEC mode
**privileged EXEC mode
router configuration mode
9. To save time, IOS commands may be partially entered and then completed by typing which key or key combination?
**Tab
Ctrl-P
Ctrl-N
Up Arrow
Right Arrow
Down Arrow
10. What is the correct command sequence to configure a router host name to 'LAB_A'?
**Router> enable
Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# hostname LAB_A
Router> enable
Router# hostname LAB_A
Router> enable
Router# configure router
Router(config)# hostname LAB_A
Router> enable
Router(config)# host name LAB_A
11. Refer to the exhibit. From the router console, an administrator is unable to ping a Catalyst switch that is located in another building. What can the administrator do from her location to check the IP configuration of the attached switch?
Open an SDM session with the switch from her desktop.
Telnet to the switch from the router console.
**Use the show cdp neighbors detail command from the router console.
The administrator must go to the switch location and make a console connection to check these settings.
12. Which two options must be selected in SDM Express to enable a router serial interface to obtain an IP address automatically? (Choose two.)
**Easy IP (IP negotiated)
IP unnumbered
No IP address
HDLC encapsulation
Frame Relay encapsulation
**PPP encapsulation
13. What three settings can be made in the SDM Express basic configuration screen? (Choose three.)
**host name
DHCP options
**domain name
interface IP addresses
**enable secret password
DNS server IP addresses
14. Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)
View a list of commands entered in a previous session.
Recall up to 15 command lines by default.
**Set the command history buffer size.
**Recall previously entered commands.
Save command lines in a log file for future reference.
15. What option within Cisco SDM Express must be configured to allow hosts that receive IP address settings from the router to resolve names on the network or Internet?
**host name
domain name
DHCP address pool
**DNS server IP address
16. Which three encapsulation types can be set on a serial interface by an administrator who is using SDM Express? (Choose three.)
ATM
CHAP
**Frame Relay
**HDLC
PAP
**PPP
17. Which command will display routing table information about all known networks and subnetworks?
Router# show ip interfaces
Router# show ip connections
**Router# show ip route
Router# show ip networks
18. A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following connection methods requires network functionality to be accessible?
console
AUX
**Telnet
modem
19. Which three pieces of information about a neighbor device can be obtained by the show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
**platform
routing protocol
**connected interface of neighbor device
**device ID
IP addresses of all interfaces
enable mode password
20. Which function is a unique responsibility of the DCE devices shown in the exhibit?
transmission of data
reception of data
**clocking for the synchronous link
noise cancellation in transmitted data
21. Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)
stores the routing table
**retains contents when power is removed
**stores the startup configuration file
contains the running configuration file
stores the ARP table
22. Refer to the exhibit. Which series of commands will enable users who are attached to Router1 to access the remote server?
Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.129 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# clock rate 64000
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.125 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.125 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# clock rate 64000
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
**Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.129 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
23. A network technician is attempting to add an older workstation to a Cisco switched LAN. The technician has manually configured the workstation to full-duplex mode in order to enhance the network performance of the workstation. However, when the device is attached to the network, performance degrades and excess collision are detected. What is the cause of this problem?
The host is configured in a different subnet from the subnet of the switch.
**There is a duplex mismatch between the workstation and switch port.
The switch port is running at a different speed from the speed of the workstation NIC.
The host has been configured with a default gateway that is different from that of the switch.
24. Which of the following statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two.)
All router commands are available.
**Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command.
A password can be entered to allow access to other modes.
Interfaces and routing protocols can be configured.
**Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.
25. Which command turns on a router interface?
Router(config-if)# enable
Router(config-if)# no down
Router(config-if)# s0 active
Router(config-if)# interface up
**Router(config-if)# no shutdown
1. In what two ways does SDM differ from the IOS CLI? (Choose two.)
**SDM is used for in-band management only. The IOS CLI can be used for in-band and out-of-band management.
SDM is accessed through a Telnet application. The IOS CLI is accessed through a web browser.
SDM is available for all router platforms. The IOS CLI is available for a limited number of Cisco devices.
**SDM utilizes GUI buttons and text boxes. The IOS CLI requires the use of text-based commands.
SDM is used for advanced configuration tasks. The IOS CLI is preferred for initial basic device configuration.
2. Which mode will a configured router display at login?
global configuration mode
setup mode
ROM monitor mode
**user EXEC mode
3. Refer to the exhibit. Which password or passwords will be encrypted as a result of the configuration that is shown?
virtual terminal only
enable mode only
console and virtual terminal only
enable mode and virtual terminal
only the service password
**all configured passwords
4. Refer to the exhibit. Which three sets of commands are required to enable administrators to connect to the Switch1 console over Telnet for configuration and management? (Choose three.)
**Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.64 255.255.255.192
**Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.66 255.255.255.192
**Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.126 255.255.255.192
Switch1(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch1(config)# line vty 0 4
Switch1(config-line)# enable password cisco
Switch1(config-line)# login
Switch1(config)# line vty 0 15
Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
Switch1(config-line)# login
Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.2.65
5. How does the SYST LED on the catalyst 2960 switch indicate a POST failure?
blinks rapidly amber
blinks rapidly green
**steady amber
steady green
6. Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to configure switch X with a default gateway. Assuming that the switch IP address is 192.168.5.147/24, what command will the administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch?
**X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.254
X(config)# ip gateway 192.168.5.1
X(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.5.1
X(config)# ip default-route 192.168.5.1
X(config)# ip route 192.168.5.254 255.255.255.0 fastethernet 0/0
7. A technician has made changes to the configuration of a router. What command will allow the technician to view the current configuration before he saves the changes?
**router# show running-config
router# show startup-config
router# show flash
router# show version
8. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
**VTY interface
**console interface
Ethernet interface
secret EXEC mode
**privileged EXEC mode
router configuration mode
9. To save time, IOS commands may be partially entered and then completed by typing which key or key combination?
**Tab
Ctrl-P
Ctrl-N
Up Arrow
Right Arrow
Down Arrow
10. What is the correct command sequence to configure a router host name to 'LAB_A'?
**Router> enable
Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# hostname LAB_A
Router> enable
Router# hostname LAB_A
Router> enable
Router# configure router
Router(config)# hostname LAB_A
Router> enable
Router(config)# host name LAB_A
11. Refer to the exhibit. From the router console, an administrator is unable to ping a Catalyst switch that is located in another building. What can the administrator do from her location to check the IP configuration of the attached switch?
Open an SDM session with the switch from her desktop.
Telnet to the switch from the router console.
**Use the show cdp neighbors detail command from the router console.
The administrator must go to the switch location and make a console connection to check these settings.
12. Which two options must be selected in SDM Express to enable a router serial interface to obtain an IP address automatically? (Choose two.)
**Easy IP (IP negotiated)
IP unnumbered
No IP address
HDLC encapsulation
Frame Relay encapsulation
**PPP encapsulation
13. What three settings can be made in the SDM Express basic configuration screen? (Choose three.)
**host name
DHCP options
**domain name
interface IP addresses
**enable secret password
DNS server IP addresses
14. Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)
View a list of commands entered in a previous session.
Recall up to 15 command lines by default.
**Set the command history buffer size.
**Recall previously entered commands.
Save command lines in a log file for future reference.
15. What option within Cisco SDM Express must be configured to allow hosts that receive IP address settings from the router to resolve names on the network or Internet?
**host name
domain name
DHCP address pool
**DNS server IP address
16. Which three encapsulation types can be set on a serial interface by an administrator who is using SDM Express? (Choose three.)
ATM
CHAP
**Frame Relay
**HDLC
PAP
**PPP
17. Which command will display routing table information about all known networks and subnetworks?
Router# show ip interfaces
Router# show ip connections
**Router# show ip route
Router# show ip networks
18. A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following connection methods requires network functionality to be accessible?
console
AUX
**Telnet
modem
19. Which three pieces of information about a neighbor device can be obtained by the show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
**platform
routing protocol
**connected interface of neighbor device
**device ID
IP addresses of all interfaces
enable mode password
20. Which function is a unique responsibility of the DCE devices shown in the exhibit?
transmission of data
reception of data
**clocking for the synchronous link
noise cancellation in transmitted data
21. Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)
stores the routing table
**retains contents when power is removed
**stores the startup configuration file
contains the running configuration file
stores the ARP table
22. Refer to the exhibit. Which series of commands will enable users who are attached to Router1 to access the remote server?
Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.129 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# clock rate 64000
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.125 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.125 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# clock rate 64000
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
**Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.129 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
23. A network technician is attempting to add an older workstation to a Cisco switched LAN. The technician has manually configured the workstation to full-duplex mode in order to enhance the network performance of the workstation. However, when the device is attached to the network, performance degrades and excess collision are detected. What is the cause of this problem?
The host is configured in a different subnet from the subnet of the switch.
**There is a duplex mismatch between the workstation and switch port.
The switch port is running at a different speed from the speed of the workstation NIC.
The host has been configured with a default gateway that is different from that of the switch.
24. Which of the following statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two.)
All router commands are available.
**Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command.
A password can be entered to allow access to other modes.
Interfaces and routing protocols can be configured.
**Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.
25. Which command turns on a router interface?
Router(config-if)# enable
Router(config-if)# no down
Router(config-if)# s0 active
Router(config-if)# interface up
**Router(config-if)# no shutdown
CCNA2 Chapter 4 V4.1
1. In an 8 bit binary number, what is the total number of combinations of the eight bits?
128
254
255
**256
512
1024
2. Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
11110010
11011011
11110110
**11100111
11100101
11101110
3. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
**254
255
256
510
511
512
4. Which statement describes NAT overload or PAT?
Each internal address is dynamically translated to an individual external IP address.
A single internal address is always translated to the same unique external IP address.
**Many internal addresses can be translated to a single IP address using different port assignments.
Many internal addresses are statically assigned a single IP address and port to use for communications.
5. Which IPv4 class of addresses provides the most networks?
Class A
Class B
**Class C
Class D
Class E
6. Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?
Public addresses cannot be used within a private network.
**Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.
Public addresses can be duplicated only within a local network.
Public IP addresses are only required to be unique within the local network.
Network administrators are free to select any public addresses to use for network devices that access the Internet.
7. Which two statements describe classful IP addresses? (Choose two.)
It is possible to determine which class an address belongs to by reading the first bit.
**The number of bits used to identify the hosts is fixed by the class of the network.
Only Class A addresses can be represented by high-order bits 100.
Up to 24 bits can make up the host portion of a Class C address.
**Up to 24 bits can be used to identify unique networks.
Three of the five classes of addresses are reserved for multicasts and experimental use.
8. Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of 255.255.255.224 to create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts in each subnet?
6
14
**30
62
9. hat is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default subnet mask?
192.168.0.0
192.168.0.255
192.168.32.0
192.168.32.254
**192.168.32.255
10. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The default gateway is a network address.
The default gateway is a broadcast address.
**The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.
11. IPv6 increases the IP address size from 32 bits to how many bits?
64
96
**128
192
256
512
12. What is the range of the first octet in a Class B address?
127 to 191
127 to 192
**128 to 191
128 to 192
13. Which IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network?
**Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Class E
14. refer to the exhibit. Which range of IP addresses would allow hosts that are connected to the Router1 Fa0/0 interface to access outside networks?
192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.95
**192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.94
192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.96
192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.127
192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.128
15 Which option shows the proper notation for an IPv6 address?
2001,0db8,3c55,0015,abcd,ff13
2001-0db8-3c55-0015-abcd-ff13
2001.0db8.3c55.0015.abcd.ff13
**2001:0db8:3c55:0015::abcd:ff13
16. What are two reasons that NAT was developed? (Choose two.)
to preserve registered public IP addresses
to allow users on the public Internet to access local networks
**to provide a method for privately addressed LANs to participate in the Internet
to make routing protocols operate more efficiently
**to allow private addresses to be routed on the public Internet
to reduce overhead and CPU usage on gateway routers
17. What must happen for a privately addressed host on an inside local network to be able to communicate with an outside destination host on the Internet?
The host IP address must be translated to an outside private address.
The host IP address must be translated to an inside local address.
The host IP address must be translated to an outside local address.
**The host IP address must be translated to an inside global address.
18. Which port numbers are used by PAT to create unique global addresses?
255 and below
1024 and below
**1025 and above
64,000 and above
19. Static NAT works by mapping a specific inside local IP address to what other specific address type?
**inside global
outside local
outside global
private IP address
20. What are three advantages of NAT implementations? (Choose three.)
**improved security
improved router performance
decreased processor load
**improved scalability
universal application compatibility
**sharing few public IP addresses with many hosts
128
254
255
**256
512
1024
2. Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
11110010
11011011
11110110
**11100111
11100101
11101110
3. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
**254
255
256
510
511
512
4. Which statement describes NAT overload or PAT?
Each internal address is dynamically translated to an individual external IP address.
A single internal address is always translated to the same unique external IP address.
**Many internal addresses can be translated to a single IP address using different port assignments.
Many internal addresses are statically assigned a single IP address and port to use for communications.
5. Which IPv4 class of addresses provides the most networks?
Class A
Class B
**Class C
Class D
Class E
6. Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?
Public addresses cannot be used within a private network.
**Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.
Public addresses can be duplicated only within a local network.
Public IP addresses are only required to be unique within the local network.
Network administrators are free to select any public addresses to use for network devices that access the Internet.
7. Which two statements describe classful IP addresses? (Choose two.)
It is possible to determine which class an address belongs to by reading the first bit.
**The number of bits used to identify the hosts is fixed by the class of the network.
Only Class A addresses can be represented by high-order bits 100.
Up to 24 bits can make up the host portion of a Class C address.
**Up to 24 bits can be used to identify unique networks.
Three of the five classes of addresses are reserved for multicasts and experimental use.
8. Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of 255.255.255.224 to create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts in each subnet?
6
14
**30
62
9. hat is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default subnet mask?
192.168.0.0
192.168.0.255
192.168.32.0
192.168.32.254
**192.168.32.255
10. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The default gateway is a network address.
The default gateway is a broadcast address.
**The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.
11. IPv6 increases the IP address size from 32 bits to how many bits?
64
96
**128
192
256
512
12. What is the range of the first octet in a Class B address?
127 to 191
127 to 192
**128 to 191
128 to 192
13. Which IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network?
**Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Class E
14. refer to the exhibit. Which range of IP addresses would allow hosts that are connected to the Router1 Fa0/0 interface to access outside networks?
192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.95
**192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.94
192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.96
192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.127
192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.128
15 Which option shows the proper notation for an IPv6 address?
2001,0db8,3c55,0015,abcd,ff13
2001-0db8-3c55-0015-abcd-ff13
2001.0db8.3c55.0015.abcd.ff13
**2001:0db8:3c55:0015::abcd:ff13
16. What are two reasons that NAT was developed? (Choose two.)
to preserve registered public IP addresses
to allow users on the public Internet to access local networks
**to provide a method for privately addressed LANs to participate in the Internet
to make routing protocols operate more efficiently
**to allow private addresses to be routed on the public Internet
to reduce overhead and CPU usage on gateway routers
17. What must happen for a privately addressed host on an inside local network to be able to communicate with an outside destination host on the Internet?
The host IP address must be translated to an outside private address.
The host IP address must be translated to an inside local address.
The host IP address must be translated to an outside local address.
**The host IP address must be translated to an inside global address.
18. Which port numbers are used by PAT to create unique global addresses?
255 and below
1024 and below
**1025 and above
64,000 and above
19. Static NAT works by mapping a specific inside local IP address to what other specific address type?
**inside global
outside local
outside global
private IP address
20. What are three advantages of NAT implementations? (Choose three.)
**improved security
improved router performance
decreased processor load
**improved scalability
universal application compatibility
**sharing few public IP addresses with many hosts
Aug 24, 2009
CCNA2 Chapter 3 V4.1 (100%)
Chapter 3 With 100% Accurate Answers
1. Which two benefits can be gained by locating network equipment in a telecommunications closet, rather than in a user area? (Choose two.)
faster communication speeds
**improved physical security
more resistant to hacker attempts
**centralized cable management
less electrical usage
2. Which three issues should be noted on the technician's site survey report? (Choose three.)
**unlabeled cables
only two power outlets per wall in each room
**poor physical security of network devices
horizontal cabling runs under 100 meters
**lack of UPS for critical devices
two users sharing the same computer
3. Which two types of cable are used for initial router configuration? (Choose two.)
serial cable
**rollover cable
straight-through cable
crossover cable
patch cable
**console cable
4. In addition to the inventory sheet, what other information about the hosts and networking equipment should be documented by the on-site technician while performing the site survey?
any obsolete office equipment being stored
all product keys for site license software
**any planned growth anticipated in the near future
the memory requirements for installed application software
5. Refer to the exhibit. What type of device is used to connect two networks?
hub
**router
switch
access point
6. It is said that the goal for availability of a communications system is "five-9s". What is meant by this?
A down time of .00001% is unacceptable.
**A network needs to be available 99.999% of the time.
Five percent of all network expense covers 99% of user requirements.
The most critical time for network availability is from 9:00 to 5:00 p.m. five days a week.
The best time to do maintenance on a network is from 5:00 p.m. to 9:00 a.m. five days a week.
7. What three things are included in a logical topology document? (Choose three.)
the location of cables, computers, and other peripherals
**the path that the data takes through a network
the wireless signal coverage area
the wiring closet and access point locations
**the device names and Layer 3 addressing information
**the location of routing, network address translation, and firewall filtering
8. Which device has the ability to break up broadcast and collision domains?
repeater
hub
**router
switch
9. Why is it important to review the results of an on-site survey report with the customer before beginning the network design?
to inform the customer of how much time the upgrade will take
to discuss the implementation schedule for the new equipment
**to verify that the report accurately describes the current network and any plans for expansion
to layout the new network design and discuss possible equipment upgrades and replacements
10. A client requires a networking device that is capable of expansion to suit growing network demands. What type of device will suit this requirement?
a networking device with ports that can be activated and deactivated
**a networking device with a modular physical configuration
a networking device with the ability to be turned off remotely
a networking device with a cost per port that is as high as possible
11. What does the use of redundant network components supply to a network?
scalability
manageability
compatibility
**reliability
12. What is the benefit for a company to use an ISR router?
**An ISR provides the functionality of a switch, router, and firewall in one device.
ISRs use a PC operating system for routing traffic, thus simplifying configuration and management.
An ISR is immune to security attacks by hackers and so replaces all other network security measures.
ISRs make routing decisions at OSI Layer 7, thus providing more intelligence to the network than do other routers.
13. Which three items are typically found in an MDF? (Choose three.)
user workstations
**switches and routers
fax machines
**network equipment racks
**the point of presence
copier
14. What are two advantages of having ISP-managed services? (Choose two.)
does not require leasing costs for service
**can guarantee up to 99.999% availability
eliminates the need for data backup
**increases availability of help desk services
does not require a Service Level Agreement
15. A manufacturing company is in the process of a network upgrade. Which two statements are true about the phases of the upgrade process? (Choose two.)
**Phase 1 is used to determine network requirements.
Phase 2 includes creating an analysis report.
**Phase 3 is based on an implementation schedule that allows extra time for unexpected events.
Phase 4 is where prototypes are created and tested.
Phase 5 includes identifying and addressing any weaknesses in the design.
16. When designing a network upgrade, which two tasks should the onsite technician perform? (Choose two.)
configure the servers and routers prior to delivery
upgrade the network operating system and all client operating systems
**investigate and document the physical layout of the premises
document the final design for approval by the customer
**perform a site survey to document the existing network structure
17. What is the term for the location at the customer premise where the customer network physically connects to the Internet through a telecommunications service provider?
backbone area
**point of presence
network distribution facility
intermediate distribution frame
18. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of twisted pair cable is used between each device?
A=console, B=straight, C=crossover, D= crossover, E=straight
A=straight, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=console
A=crossover, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
**A=console, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
A=console, B=crossover, C=crossover, D=straight, E=straight
19. In what two ways will entering into a managed service agreement with an ISP for a network upgrade affect the costs that are incurred by the customer? (Choose two.)
Customer IT training costs will increase to enable operation of the new equipment.
The cost of hardware repairs and support will become the responsibility of the customer.
**Network upgrade and maintenance costs will become predictable.
Staffing costs will increase because the customer will need to hire additional IT staff to complete the upgrade.
**The company will not need to spend a large amount of money to purchase the equipment upfront.
20. Which type of cable has a solid copper core with several protective layers including PVC, braided wire shielding, and a plastic covering?
STP
UTP
**coaxial
fiber optic
21. What must be added when a network expands beyond the coverage area of the current telecommunications room?
MDF
POP
**IDF
IXP
1. Which two benefits can be gained by locating network equipment in a telecommunications closet, rather than in a user area? (Choose two.)
faster communication speeds
**improved physical security
more resistant to hacker attempts
**centralized cable management
less electrical usage
2. Which three issues should be noted on the technician's site survey report? (Choose three.)
**unlabeled cables
only two power outlets per wall in each room
**poor physical security of network devices
horizontal cabling runs under 100 meters
**lack of UPS for critical devices
two users sharing the same computer
3. Which two types of cable are used for initial router configuration? (Choose two.)
serial cable
**rollover cable
straight-through cable
crossover cable
patch cable
**console cable
4. In addition to the inventory sheet, what other information about the hosts and networking equipment should be documented by the on-site technician while performing the site survey?
any obsolete office equipment being stored
all product keys for site license software
**any planned growth anticipated in the near future
the memory requirements for installed application software
5. Refer to the exhibit. What type of device is used to connect two networks?
hub
**router
switch
access point
6. It is said that the goal for availability of a communications system is "five-9s". What is meant by this?
A down time of .00001% is unacceptable.
**A network needs to be available 99.999% of the time.
Five percent of all network expense covers 99% of user requirements.
The most critical time for network availability is from 9:00 to 5:00 p.m. five days a week.
The best time to do maintenance on a network is from 5:00 p.m. to 9:00 a.m. five days a week.
7. What three things are included in a logical topology document? (Choose three.)
the location of cables, computers, and other peripherals
**the path that the data takes through a network
the wireless signal coverage area
the wiring closet and access point locations
**the device names and Layer 3 addressing information
**the location of routing, network address translation, and firewall filtering
8. Which device has the ability to break up broadcast and collision domains?
repeater
hub
**router
switch
9. Why is it important to review the results of an on-site survey report with the customer before beginning the network design?
to inform the customer of how much time the upgrade will take
to discuss the implementation schedule for the new equipment
**to verify that the report accurately describes the current network and any plans for expansion
to layout the new network design and discuss possible equipment upgrades and replacements
10. A client requires a networking device that is capable of expansion to suit growing network demands. What type of device will suit this requirement?
a networking device with ports that can be activated and deactivated
**a networking device with a modular physical configuration
a networking device with the ability to be turned off remotely
a networking device with a cost per port that is as high as possible
11. What does the use of redundant network components supply to a network?
scalability
manageability
compatibility
**reliability
12. What is the benefit for a company to use an ISR router?
**An ISR provides the functionality of a switch, router, and firewall in one device.
ISRs use a PC operating system for routing traffic, thus simplifying configuration and management.
An ISR is immune to security attacks by hackers and so replaces all other network security measures.
ISRs make routing decisions at OSI Layer 7, thus providing more intelligence to the network than do other routers.
13. Which three items are typically found in an MDF? (Choose three.)
user workstations
**switches and routers
fax machines
**network equipment racks
**the point of presence
copier
14. What are two advantages of having ISP-managed services? (Choose two.)
does not require leasing costs for service
**can guarantee up to 99.999% availability
eliminates the need for data backup
**increases availability of help desk services
does not require a Service Level Agreement
15. A manufacturing company is in the process of a network upgrade. Which two statements are true about the phases of the upgrade process? (Choose two.)
**Phase 1 is used to determine network requirements.
Phase 2 includes creating an analysis report.
**Phase 3 is based on an implementation schedule that allows extra time for unexpected events.
Phase 4 is where prototypes are created and tested.
Phase 5 includes identifying and addressing any weaknesses in the design.
16. When designing a network upgrade, which two tasks should the onsite technician perform? (Choose two.)
configure the servers and routers prior to delivery
upgrade the network operating system and all client operating systems
**investigate and document the physical layout of the premises
document the final design for approval by the customer
**perform a site survey to document the existing network structure
17. What is the term for the location at the customer premise where the customer network physically connects to the Internet through a telecommunications service provider?
backbone area
**point of presence
network distribution facility
intermediate distribution frame
18. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of twisted pair cable is used between each device?
A=console, B=straight, C=crossover, D= crossover, E=straight
A=straight, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=console
A=crossover, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
**A=console, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
A=console, B=crossover, C=crossover, D=straight, E=straight
19. In what two ways will entering into a managed service agreement with an ISP for a network upgrade affect the costs that are incurred by the customer? (Choose two.)
Customer IT training costs will increase to enable operation of the new equipment.
The cost of hardware repairs and support will become the responsibility of the customer.
**Network upgrade and maintenance costs will become predictable.
Staffing costs will increase because the customer will need to hire additional IT staff to complete the upgrade.
**The company will not need to spend a large amount of money to purchase the equipment upfront.
20. Which type of cable has a solid copper core with several protective layers including PVC, braided wire shielding, and a plastic covering?
STP
UTP
**coaxial
fiber optic
21. What must be added when a network expands beyond the coverage area of the current telecommunications room?
MDF
POP
**IDF
IXP
CCNA 2 Chapter 2 v4.1 (100%)
(True 100%)
1. Which two functions are provided by the upper layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
placing electrical signals on the medium for transmission
**initiating the network communication process
**encrypting and compressing data for transmission
segmenting and identifying data for reassembly at the destination
choosing the appropriate path for the data to take through the network
2. Which is a function of the transport layer of the OSI model?
routes data between networks
converts data to bits for transmission
**delivers data reliably across the network using TCP
formats and encodes data for transmission
transmits data to the next directly connected device
3. Which common Layer 1 problem can cause a user to lose connectivity?
incorrect subnet mask
incorrect default gateway
**loose network cable
NIC improperly installed
4. Which three command line utilities are most commonly used to troubleshoot issues at Layer 3? (Choose three.)
**ping
a packet sniffer
Telnet
**ipconfig
**Traceroute
5. Which address is used by the router to direct a packet between networks?
source MAC address
destination MAC address
source IP address
**destination IP address
6. What is the correct encapsulation order when data is passed from Layer 1 up to Layer 4 of the OSI model?
**bits, frames, packets, segments
frames, bits, packets, segments
packets, frames, segments, bits
segments, packets, frames, bits
7. What are two goals of the ISP help desk? (Choose two.)
conserving support resources
**network optimization
competitive scalability
**customer retention
sales of network services
8. In what two ways do Level 1 and Level 2 help desk technicians attempt to solve a customer's problems? (Choose three.)
**talking to the customer on the telephone
upgrading hardware and software
**using various web tools
making an onsite visit
installing new equipment
**with remote desktop sharing applications
9. A customer calls the help desk about setting up a new PC and cable modem and being unable to access the Internet. What three questions would the technician ask if the bottom-up troubleshooting approach is used? (Choose three.)
**Is the NIC link light blinking?
What is the IP address and subnet mask?
Can the default gateway be successfully pinged?
**Is the network cable properly attached to the modem?
**Is the Category 5 cable properly connected to the network slot on the PC?
Can you access your e-mail account?
10. A customer calls to report a problem accessing an e-commerce web site. The help desk technician begins troubleshooting using a top-down approach. Which question would the technician ask the customer first?
**Can you access other web sites?
Is there a firewall installed on your computer?
What is your IP address?
Is the link light lit on your NIC card?
11. Which statement describes the process of escalating a help desk trouble ticket?
The help desk technican resolves the customer problem over the phone and closes the trouble ticket.
Remote desktop utilities enable the help desk technician to fix a configuration error and close the trouble ticket.
**After trying unsuccessfully to fix a problem, the help desk technician sends the trouble ticket to the onsite support staff.
When the problem is solved, all information is recorded on the trouble ticket for future reference.
12. What are two functions of the physical layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
adding the hardware address
**converting data to bits
encapsulating data into frames
**signal generation
routing packets
13. A customer calls the ISP help desk after setting up a new PC with a cable modem but being unable to access the Internet. After the help desk technician has verified Layer 1 and Layer 2, what are three questions the help desk technician should ask the customer? (Choose three.)
**What is your subnet mask?
**What is your IP address?
Is the NIC link light blinking?
**Can you ping the default gateway?
Is the network cable properly attached to the cable modem?
Is the network cable correctly connected to the network port on the PC?
14. Which scenario represents a problem at Layer 4 of the OSI model?
An incorrect IP address on the default gateway.
A bad subnet mask in the host IP configuration.
**A firewall filtering traffic addressed to TCP port 25 on an email server.
An incorrect DNS server address being given out by DHCP.
15. What are two basic procedures of incident management? (Choose two.)
**opening a trouble ticket
using diagnostic tools to identify the problem
surveying network conditions for further analysis
configuring new equipment and software upgrades
**adhering to a problem-solving strategy
e-mailing a problem resolution to the customer
16. Which level of support is supplied by an ISP when providing managed services?
Level 1
Level 2
**Level 3
Level 4
17. What is the first step that is used by a help desk technician in a systematic approach to helping a customer solve a problem?
identify and prioritize alternative solutions
isolate the cause of the problem
**define the problem
select an evaluation process
18. A network technician has isolated a problem at the transport layer of the OSI model. Which question would provide further information about the problem?
**Do you have a firewall that is configured on your PC?
Do you have a link light on your network card?
Is your PC configured to obtain addressing information using DHCP?
What default gateway address is configured in your TCP/IP settings?
Can you ping http://www.cisco.com?
19. An ISP help desk technician receives a call from a customer who reports that no one at their business can reach any websites, or get their e-mail. After testing the communication line and finding everything fine, the technician instructs the customer to run nslookup from the command prompt. What does the technician suspect is causing the customer's problem?
improper IP address configuration on the host
hardware failure of the ISR used to connect the customer to the ISP
bad cables or connections at the customer site
**failure of DNS to resolve names to IP addresses
20. Which layers of the OSI model are commonly referred to as the upper layers?
**application, presentation, session
application, session, network
presentation, transport, network
presentation, network, data link
session, transport, network
1. Which two functions are provided by the upper layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
placing electrical signals on the medium for transmission
**initiating the network communication process
**encrypting and compressing data for transmission
segmenting and identifying data for reassembly at the destination
choosing the appropriate path for the data to take through the network
2. Which is a function of the transport layer of the OSI model?
routes data between networks
converts data to bits for transmission
**delivers data reliably across the network using TCP
formats and encodes data for transmission
transmits data to the next directly connected device
3. Which common Layer 1 problem can cause a user to lose connectivity?
incorrect subnet mask
incorrect default gateway
**loose network cable
NIC improperly installed
4. Which three command line utilities are most commonly used to troubleshoot issues at Layer 3? (Choose three.)
**ping
a packet sniffer
Telnet
**ipconfig
**Traceroute
5. Which address is used by the router to direct a packet between networks?
source MAC address
destination MAC address
source IP address
**destination IP address
6. What is the correct encapsulation order when data is passed from Layer 1 up to Layer 4 of the OSI model?
**bits, frames, packets, segments
frames, bits, packets, segments
packets, frames, segments, bits
segments, packets, frames, bits
7. What are two goals of the ISP help desk? (Choose two.)
conserving support resources
**network optimization
competitive scalability
**customer retention
sales of network services
8. In what two ways do Level 1 and Level 2 help desk technicians attempt to solve a customer's problems? (Choose three.)
**talking to the customer on the telephone
upgrading hardware and software
**using various web tools
making an onsite visit
installing new equipment
**with remote desktop sharing applications
9. A customer calls the help desk about setting up a new PC and cable modem and being unable to access the Internet. What three questions would the technician ask if the bottom-up troubleshooting approach is used? (Choose three.)
**Is the NIC link light blinking?
What is the IP address and subnet mask?
Can the default gateway be successfully pinged?
**Is the network cable properly attached to the modem?
**Is the Category 5 cable properly connected to the network slot on the PC?
Can you access your e-mail account?
10. A customer calls to report a problem accessing an e-commerce web site. The help desk technician begins troubleshooting using a top-down approach. Which question would the technician ask the customer first?
**Can you access other web sites?
Is there a firewall installed on your computer?
What is your IP address?
Is the link light lit on your NIC card?
11. Which statement describes the process of escalating a help desk trouble ticket?
The help desk technican resolves the customer problem over the phone and closes the trouble ticket.
Remote desktop utilities enable the help desk technician to fix a configuration error and close the trouble ticket.
**After trying unsuccessfully to fix a problem, the help desk technician sends the trouble ticket to the onsite support staff.
When the problem is solved, all information is recorded on the trouble ticket for future reference.
12. What are two functions of the physical layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
adding the hardware address
**converting data to bits
encapsulating data into frames
**signal generation
routing packets
13. A customer calls the ISP help desk after setting up a new PC with a cable modem but being unable to access the Internet. After the help desk technician has verified Layer 1 and Layer 2, what are three questions the help desk technician should ask the customer? (Choose three.)
**What is your subnet mask?
**What is your IP address?
Is the NIC link light blinking?
**Can you ping the default gateway?
Is the network cable properly attached to the cable modem?
Is the network cable correctly connected to the network port on the PC?
14. Which scenario represents a problem at Layer 4 of the OSI model?
An incorrect IP address on the default gateway.
A bad subnet mask in the host IP configuration.
**A firewall filtering traffic addressed to TCP port 25 on an email server.
An incorrect DNS server address being given out by DHCP.
15. What are two basic procedures of incident management? (Choose two.)
**opening a trouble ticket
using diagnostic tools to identify the problem
surveying network conditions for further analysis
configuring new equipment and software upgrades
**adhering to a problem-solving strategy
e-mailing a problem resolution to the customer
16. Which level of support is supplied by an ISP when providing managed services?
Level 1
Level 2
**Level 3
Level 4
17. What is the first step that is used by a help desk technician in a systematic approach to helping a customer solve a problem?
identify and prioritize alternative solutions
isolate the cause of the problem
**define the problem
select an evaluation process
18. A network technician has isolated a problem at the transport layer of the OSI model. Which question would provide further information about the problem?
**Do you have a firewall that is configured on your PC?
Do you have a link light on your network card?
Is your PC configured to obtain addressing information using DHCP?
What default gateway address is configured in your TCP/IP settings?
Can you ping http://www.cisco.com?
19. An ISP help desk technician receives a call from a customer who reports that no one at their business can reach any websites, or get their e-mail. After testing the communication line and finding everything fine, the technician instructs the customer to run nslookup from the command prompt. What does the technician suspect is causing the customer's problem?
improper IP address configuration on the host
hardware failure of the ISR used to connect the customer to the ISP
bad cables or connections at the customer site
**failure of DNS to resolve names to IP addresses
20. Which layers of the OSI model are commonly referred to as the upper layers?
**application, presentation, session
application, session, network
presentation, transport, network
presentation, network, data link
session, transport, network
Aug 23, 2009
CCNA2 Chapter 1
1. Which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose two.)
the number of routers between the source and destination device
the IP address of the router nearest the destination device
**the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the response to return to the source
**whether or not the destination device is reachable through the network
the average time it takes each router in the path between source and destination to respond
2. What are three main types of high-bandwidth connection options used by medium- to large-sized businesses? (Choose three.)
DSL
cable modem
Ethernet
**metro Ethernet
**T1
**T3
3. What is the maximum T1 transmission speed?
56 kbps
128 kbps
**1.544 Mbps
2.4 Mbps
4. Which of the following start the test of destination reachability?
**echo request issued by source
echo reply issued by source
echo request issued by destination
echo reply issued by destination
5. Which statement describes a function of a Tier 1 ISP?
**peers with other similarly sized ISPs to form the global Internet backbone
uses the services of Tier 3 ISPs to connect to the global Internet backbone
pays Tier 2 ISPs for transit services to connect across continents
limits the offered services to small geographic areas
6. At which point do individuals and small businesses connect directly to the ISP network to obtain Internet access?
**at a POP
at an IXP
at a Metro Ethernet link
on the ISP extranet
7.What information is contained in the numbered RFCs maintained by the IETF?
the rules for acceptable use of websites and e-mail
the descriptions of various hardware components that connect to the Internet
**the specifications and rules for how devices communicate over an IP network
the standards for cabling and wiring for local Ethernet networks
8. Which network support services team is responsible for testing a new customer connection and for monitoring the ongoing operation of the link?"
customer service
help desk
**network operations
on-site installation
9. Which network support services team identifies whether the client site has existing network hardware and circuits installed?
customer service
help desk
network operations
**planning and provisioning
10. Which ISP network support systems team will typically contact the customer once a new circuit is ready and guide the customer in setting up passwords and other account information?
**help desk
customer service
network operations center
on-site installation team
planning and provisioning
11. What feature allows network devices to be scalable?
a fixed number of interfaces
ease of repair
**modularity
low maintenance requirements
low cost
12. Which command generated this output?
1 12.0.0.2 4 msec 4 msec 4 msec
2 23.0.0.3 20 msec 16 msec 16 msec
3 34.0.0.4 16 msec 18 msec 16 msec
**Router# traceroute 34.0.0.4
Router# nslookup 34.0.0.4
Router# ping 34.0.0.4
Router# telnet 34.0.0.4
13. Which network utility helps determine the location of network problems and identifies routers that packets travel across?
ping
ipconfig
**traceroute
ixp
14. What interconnects the Internet backbone?
gateway routers
**IXPs
POPs
satellite dishes
15. What units are used to measure Internet bandwidth?
**bits per second
bytes per second
hertz
megabytes per second
packets per second
16. The IT manager of a medium-sized business wishes to house the company-owned web servers in a facility that offers round-the-clock controlled access, redundant power, and high-bandwidth Internet access. Which ISP service will fulfill this need?
web hosting
planning and provisioning
application hosting
**equipment colocation
Tier 1 ISP services
17. What is the purpose of an RFC?
to provide the connection point for multiple ISPs to the Internet
**to document the development and approval of an Internet standard
to connect a business to an ISP
to provide data communication services to ISP customers
to monitor network performance and connection status of ISP clients
18. When did the Internet become available for use by businesses and consumers?
1979
1984
**1991
1999
2000
19. What was the original purpose of the Internet?
voice communication
marketing
**research
commerce
20. What three support service teams are commonly found within an ISP? (Choose three.)
**help desk
computer support
application readiness
**network operations center
**planning and provisioning
implementation and documentation
the number of routers between the source and destination device
the IP address of the router nearest the destination device
**the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the response to return to the source
**whether or not the destination device is reachable through the network
the average time it takes each router in the path between source and destination to respond
2. What are three main types of high-bandwidth connection options used by medium- to large-sized businesses? (Choose three.)
DSL
cable modem
Ethernet
**metro Ethernet
**T1
**T3
3. What is the maximum T1 transmission speed?
56 kbps
128 kbps
**1.544 Mbps
2.4 Mbps
4. Which of the following start the test of destination reachability?
**echo request issued by source
echo reply issued by source
echo request issued by destination
echo reply issued by destination
5. Which statement describes a function of a Tier 1 ISP?
**peers with other similarly sized ISPs to form the global Internet backbone
uses the services of Tier 3 ISPs to connect to the global Internet backbone
pays Tier 2 ISPs for transit services to connect across continents
limits the offered services to small geographic areas
6. At which point do individuals and small businesses connect directly to the ISP network to obtain Internet access?
**at a POP
at an IXP
at a Metro Ethernet link
on the ISP extranet
7.What information is contained in the numbered RFCs maintained by the IETF?
the rules for acceptable use of websites and e-mail
the descriptions of various hardware components that connect to the Internet
**the specifications and rules for how devices communicate over an IP network
the standards for cabling and wiring for local Ethernet networks
8. Which network support services team is responsible for testing a new customer connection and for monitoring the ongoing operation of the link?"
customer service
help desk
**network operations
on-site installation
9. Which network support services team identifies whether the client site has existing network hardware and circuits installed?
customer service
help desk
network operations
**planning and provisioning
10. Which ISP network support systems team will typically contact the customer once a new circuit is ready and guide the customer in setting up passwords and other account information?
**help desk
customer service
network operations center
on-site installation team
planning and provisioning
11. What feature allows network devices to be scalable?
a fixed number of interfaces
ease of repair
**modularity
low maintenance requirements
low cost
12. Which command generated this output?
1 12.0.0.2 4 msec 4 msec 4 msec
2 23.0.0.3 20 msec 16 msec 16 msec
3 34.0.0.4 16 msec 18 msec 16 msec
**Router# traceroute 34.0.0.4
Router# nslookup 34.0.0.4
Router# ping 34.0.0.4
Router# telnet 34.0.0.4
13. Which network utility helps determine the location of network problems and identifies routers that packets travel across?
ping
ipconfig
**traceroute
ixp
14. What interconnects the Internet backbone?
gateway routers
**IXPs
POPs
satellite dishes
15. What units are used to measure Internet bandwidth?
**bits per second
bytes per second
hertz
megabytes per second
packets per second
16. The IT manager of a medium-sized business wishes to house the company-owned web servers in a facility that offers round-the-clock controlled access, redundant power, and high-bandwidth Internet access. Which ISP service will fulfill this need?
web hosting
planning and provisioning
application hosting
**equipment colocation
Tier 1 ISP services
17. What is the purpose of an RFC?
to provide the connection point for multiple ISPs to the Internet
**to document the development and approval of an Internet standard
to connect a business to an ISP
to provide data communication services to ISP customers
to monitor network performance and connection status of ISP clients
18. When did the Internet become available for use by businesses and consumers?
1979
1984
**1991
1999
2000
19. What was the original purpose of the Internet?
voice communication
marketing
**research
commerce
20. What three support service teams are commonly found within an ISP? (Choose three.)
**help desk
computer support
application readiness
**network operations center
**planning and provisioning
implementation and documentation
Aug 22, 2009
CCNA 1 Module 5
1 In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?
**destination network address
source network address
source MAC address
well known port destination address
2 What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?
source and destination MAC
source and destination application protocol
source and destination port number
**source and destination IP address
3 In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?
The destination is contacted before a packet is sent.
**The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that indicates the packet was received.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that requests the next packet to be sent.
4 Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?
type-of-service
identification
flags
**time-to-live
header checksum
5 Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?
host portion
broadcast address
**network portion
gateway address
6
Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?
192.135.250.1
192.31.7.1
192.133.219.0
**192.133.219.1
7 If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
**The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
There is no impact on communications.
8 What is the purpose of a default gateway?
physically connects a computer to a network
provides a permanent address to a computer
identifies the network to which a computer is connected
identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
**identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks
9 What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?
dynamic
interior
**static
standard
10 When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)
The router sends an ARP request to determine the required next hop address.
**The router discards the packet.
The router forwards the packet toward the next hop indicated in the ARP table.
The router forwards the packet to the interface indicated by the source address.
**The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.
11 What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)
gateways
**purpose
physical addressing
software version
**geographic location
**ownership
12 What is a component of a routing table entry?
the MAC address of the interface of the router
the destination Layer 4 port number
the destination host address
**the next-hop address
13 Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)
**router
hub
switch
**firewall
access point
bridge
14 What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)
too few broadcasts
**performance degradation
**security issues
limited management responsibility
**host identification
protocol compatibility
15
Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?
3
**4
5
7
8
11
16 Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)
If no route to the destination network is found, the packet is returned to the previous router.
**If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.
If multiple network entries exist for the destination network, the most general route is used to forward the packet.
**If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
**If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.
If a host does not have a route manually configured for the destination network, the host will drop the packet.
17
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?
10.10.10.26
127.0.0.1
**10.10.10.6
10.10.10.1
224.0.0.0
18
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)
**Replace S2 with a router.
Place all servers on S1.
Disable TCP/IP broadcasts.
**Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.
Disable all unused interfaces on the switches.
19
Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)
**192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
10.0.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 10.0.0.0 network.
192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
172.16.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 to the 172.16.0.0 network.
**192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
20 What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)
require no device configuration
**provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
require less processing power than static routes require
**consume bandwidth to exchange route information
prevent manual configuration and maintenance of the routing table
21 What statement describes the purpose of a default route?
A host uses a default route to transfer data to another host on the same network segment.
A host uses a default route to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.
A host uses a default route to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.
**A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.
**destination network address
source network address
source MAC address
well known port destination address
2 What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?
source and destination MAC
source and destination application protocol
source and destination port number
**source and destination IP address
3 In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?
The destination is contacted before a packet is sent.
**The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that indicates the packet was received.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that requests the next packet to be sent.
4 Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?
type-of-service
identification
flags
**time-to-live
header checksum
5 Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?
host portion
broadcast address
**network portion
gateway address
6
Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?
192.135.250.1
192.31.7.1
192.133.219.0
**192.133.219.1
7 If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
**The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
There is no impact on communications.
8 What is the purpose of a default gateway?
physically connects a computer to a network
provides a permanent address to a computer
identifies the network to which a computer is connected
identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
**identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks
9 What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?
dynamic
interior
**static
standard
10 When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)
The router sends an ARP request to determine the required next hop address.
**The router discards the packet.
The router forwards the packet toward the next hop indicated in the ARP table.
The router forwards the packet to the interface indicated by the source address.
**The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.
11 What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)
gateways
**purpose
physical addressing
software version
**geographic location
**ownership
12 What is a component of a routing table entry?
the MAC address of the interface of the router
the destination Layer 4 port number
the destination host address
**the next-hop address
13 Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)
**router
hub
switch
**firewall
access point
bridge
14 What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)
too few broadcasts
**performance degradation
**security issues
limited management responsibility
**host identification
protocol compatibility
15
Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?
3
**4
5
7
8
11
16 Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)
If no route to the destination network is found, the packet is returned to the previous router.
**If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.
If multiple network entries exist for the destination network, the most general route is used to forward the packet.
**If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
**If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.
If a host does not have a route manually configured for the destination network, the host will drop the packet.
17
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?
10.10.10.26
127.0.0.1
**10.10.10.6
10.10.10.1
224.0.0.0
18
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)
**Replace S2 with a router.
Place all servers on S1.
Disable TCP/IP broadcasts.
**Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.
Disable all unused interfaces on the switches.
19
Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)
**192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
10.0.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 10.0.0.0 network.
192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
172.16.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 to the 172.16.0.0 network.
**192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
20 What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)
require no device configuration
**provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
require less processing power than static routes require
**consume bandwidth to exchange route information
prevent manual configuration and maintenance of the routing table
21 What statement describes the purpose of a default route?
A host uses a default route to transfer data to another host on the same network segment.
A host uses a default route to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.
A host uses a default route to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.
**A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.
CCNA 1 Module 4
1
Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
**A termination request has been sent to 192.135.250.10.
**Communication with 64.100.173.42 is using HTTP Secure.
The local computer is accepting HTTP requests.
192.168.1.101:1042 is performing the three-way handshake with 128.107.229.50:80.
2 After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
13
53
**80
1024
1728
3 Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
sequencing
flow control
acknowledgments
**source and destination
4 Which is an important characteristic of UDP?
acknowledgement of data delivery
**minimal delays in data delivery
high reliability of data delivery
same order data delivery
5
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
create a Layer 1 jam signal
**reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged
send a RESET bit to the host
change the window size in the Layer 4 header
6
Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?
**session establishment
segment retransmit
data transfer
session disconnect
7
Refer to the exhibit. The initial TCP exchange of data between two hosts is shown in the exhibit. Assuming an initial sequence number of 0, what sequence number will be included in Acknowledgment 2 if Segment 6 is lost?
2
3
6
1850
**3431
3475
8 Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?
to synchronize equipment speed for sent data
to synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical order
**to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data
to synchronize window size on the server
to simplify data transfer to multiple hosts
9 During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?
The packets will not be delivered.
The packets will be retransmitted from the source.
**The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.
The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.
10 With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
0 to 255
256 to 1022
**0 to 1023
1024 to 2047
49153 to 65535
11 Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
TCP
IP
**UDP
HTTP
DNS
12 What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
flow control
**low overhead
**connectionless
connection-oriented
sequence and acknowledgements
13 What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?
sequence numbers
session establishment
**window size
acknowledgments
14 What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
destination logical address
source physical address
default gateway address
**source port
15 Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
**to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order
16 Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)
identifies the destination network
identifies source and destination hosts
**identifies the communicating applications
**identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
identifies the devices communicating over the local media
17 Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?
encapsulation
**flow control
connectionless services
**session establishment
**numbering and sequencing
best effort delivery
18 Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
application
presentation
session
**transport
network
19
Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)
This is a UDP header.
**This contains a Telnet request.
This contains a TFTP data transfer.
The return packet from this remote host will have an Acknowledgement Number of 43693.
**This is a TCP header.
20 Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
The two applications exchange data.
**TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.
UDP establishes the maximum number of bytes to be sent.
The server acknowledges the bytes of data received from the client.
21
Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next?
Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 0, SYN flag = 0 to Host2.
Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 0 to Host2.
Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host2.
Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 0, SYN flag = 1 to Host1.
Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 0 to Host1.
**Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host1.
Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
**A termination request has been sent to 192.135.250.10.
**Communication with 64.100.173.42 is using HTTP Secure.
The local computer is accepting HTTP requests.
192.168.1.101:1042 is performing the three-way handshake with 128.107.229.50:80.
2 After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
13
53
**80
1024
1728
3 Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
sequencing
flow control
acknowledgments
**source and destination
4 Which is an important characteristic of UDP?
acknowledgement of data delivery
**minimal delays in data delivery
high reliability of data delivery
same order data delivery
5
create a Layer 1 jam signal
**reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged
send a RESET bit to the host
change the window size in the Layer 4 header
6
**session establishment
segment retransmit
data transfer
session disconnect
7
2
3
6
1850
**3431
3475
8 Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?
to synchronize equipment speed for sent data
to synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical order
**to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data
to synchronize window size on the server
to simplify data transfer to multiple hosts
9 During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?
The packets will not be delivered.
The packets will be retransmitted from the source.
**The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.
The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.
10 With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
0 to 255
256 to 1022
**0 to 1023
1024 to 2047
49153 to 65535
11 Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
TCP
IP
**UDP
HTTP
DNS
12 What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
flow control
**low overhead
**connectionless
connection-oriented
sequence and acknowledgements
13 What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?
sequence numbers
session establishment
**window size
acknowledgments
14 What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
destination logical address
source physical address
default gateway address
**source port
15 Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
**to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order
16 Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)
identifies the destination network
identifies source and destination hosts
**identifies the communicating applications
**identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
identifies the devices communicating over the local media
17 Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?
encapsulation
**flow control
connectionless services
**session establishment
**numbering and sequencing
best effort delivery
18 Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
application
presentation
session
**transport
network
19
This is a UDP header.
**This contains a Telnet request.
This contains a TFTP data transfer.
The return packet from this remote host will have an Acknowledgement Number of 43693.
**This is a TCP header.
20 Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
The two applications exchange data.
**TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.
UDP establishes the maximum number of bytes to be sent.
The server acknowledges the bytes of data received from the client.
21
Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 0, SYN flag = 0 to Host2.
Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 0 to Host2.
Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host2.
Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 0, SYN flag = 1 to Host1.
Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 0 to Host1.
**Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host1.
Aug 21, 2009
CCNA 1 Chapter 3
1. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?
HTML
HTTP
** FTP
Telnet
2. What are two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.)
** applications
dialogs
requests
** services
syntax
3. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model? (Choose two.)
** centralized administration
does not require specialized software
** security is easier to enforce
lower cost implementation
provides a single point of failure
4. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?
temporarily holds resolved entries
** used by the server to resolve names
sent by the client to during a query
passes authentication information between the server and client
5. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?
HTTP
SSH
FQDN
** DNS
Telnet
SMTP
6. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
ARP
** DNS
PPP
** SMTP
** POP
ICMP
7. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)
** acts as both a client and server within the same communication.
requires centralized account administration.
** hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files.
** can be used in client-server networks.
requires a direct physical connection between devices.
centralized authentication is required.
8. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.)
DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
** HTTP transfers data from a web server to a client
POP delivers email from the client to the server email server
SMTP supports file sharing
** Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access
9. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.)
MDA
IMAP
** MTA
POP
** SMTP
MUA
10. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?
not widely available
** does not support encryption
consumes more network bandwidth
does not support authentication
11. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose three.)
routes email to the MDA on other servers
** receives email from the client's MUA
receives email via the POP3 protocol
** passes email to the MDA for final delivery
** uses SMTP to route email between servers
delivers email to clients via the POP3 protocol
12. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? (Choose two.)
ASP
FTP
HTML
** HTTP
** HTTPS
IP
13. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? (Choose two.)
User accounts are centralized.
** Security is difficult to enforce.
Specialized operating system software is required.
File permissions are controlled by a single computer.
** A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server.
14. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?
physical
session
network
presentation
** application
transport
15.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?
** 80
1261
15533
3912
65520
16. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)
scalable
one way data flow
** decentralized resources
centralized user accounts
** resource sharing without a dedicated server
17. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks?
DHCP
DNS
** SMB
SMTP
Telnet
18. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks? (Choose two.)
use daemons
** initiate data exchanges
are repositories of data
** may upload data to servers
listen for requests from servers
19. What is the role of the OSI application layer?
provides segmentation of data
provides encryption and conversion of data
** provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network
provides control of all the data flowing between the source and destination devices
20. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?
ceases all connections to the service
denies multiple connections to a single daemon
suspends the current connection to allow the new connection
** uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the service
HTML
HTTP
** FTP
Telnet
2. What are two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.)
** applications
dialogs
requests
** services
syntax
3. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model? (Choose two.)
** centralized administration
does not require specialized software
** security is easier to enforce
lower cost implementation
provides a single point of failure
4. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?
temporarily holds resolved entries
** used by the server to resolve names
sent by the client to during a query
passes authentication information between the server and client
5. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?
HTTP
SSH
FQDN
** DNS
Telnet
SMTP
6. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
ARP
** DNS
PPP
** SMTP
** POP
ICMP
7. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)
** acts as both a client and server within the same communication.
requires centralized account administration.
** hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files.
** can be used in client-server networks.
requires a direct physical connection between devices.
centralized authentication is required.
8. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.)
DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
** HTTP transfers data from a web server to a client
POP delivers email from the client to the server email server
SMTP supports file sharing
** Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access
9. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.)
MDA
IMAP
** MTA
POP
** SMTP
MUA
10. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?
not widely available
** does not support encryption
consumes more network bandwidth
does not support authentication
11. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose three.)
routes email to the MDA on other servers
** receives email from the client's MUA
receives email via the POP3 protocol
** passes email to the MDA for final delivery
** uses SMTP to route email between servers
delivers email to clients via the POP3 protocol
12. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? (Choose two.)
ASP
FTP
HTML
** HTTP
** HTTPS
IP
13. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? (Choose two.)
User accounts are centralized.
** Security is difficult to enforce.
Specialized operating system software is required.
File permissions are controlled by a single computer.
** A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server.
14. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?
physical
session
network
presentation
** application
transport
15.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?
** 80
1261
15533
3912
65520
16. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)
scalable
one way data flow
** decentralized resources
centralized user accounts
** resource sharing without a dedicated server
17. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks?
DHCP
DNS
** SMB
SMTP
Telnet
18. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks? (Choose two.)
use daemons
** initiate data exchanges
are repositories of data
** may upload data to servers
listen for requests from servers
19. What is the role of the OSI application layer?
provides segmentation of data
provides encryption and conversion of data
** provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network
provides control of all the data flowing between the source and destination devices
20. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?
ceases all connections to the service
denies multiple connections to a single daemon
suspends the current connection to allow the new connection
** uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the service
Aug 20, 2009
CCNA 1 Module 2
1. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)
Network
Transport
Physical**
Data Link**
Session
2. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
supports error detection**
ensures ordered arrival of data
provides delivery to correct destination
identifies the devices on the local network
assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection
3. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
No address is added.
The logical address is added.
The physical address is added.**
The process port number is added.
4. What device is considered an intermediary device?
file server
IP phone
laptop
printer
switch**
5. Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
physical
data link
network**
transport
6. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)
determine pathways for data**
initiate data communications
retime and retransmit data signals**
originate the flow of data
manage data flows**
final termination point for data flow
7. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
the destination device on the local media
the path to use to reach the destination host**
the bits that will be transferred over the media
the source application or process creating the data
8. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?
physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport
application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation
application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network
application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical**
presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application
9.
Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
Network A -- WAN
Network B -- WAN**
Network C -- LAN**
Network B -- MAN
Network C -- WAN
Network A -- LAN**
10. What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)
allows modification of the original data before transmission
identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication**
enables consistent network paths for communication
ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device**
enables the reassembly of complete messages**
tracks delay between end devices
11.
Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?
piping
PDU
streaming
multiplexing**
encapsulation
12. What is a PDU?
corruption of a frame during transmission
data reassembled at the destination
retransmitted packets due to lost communication
a layer specific encapsulation**
13.
Refer to the exhibit. "Cell A" at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with "IP Phone 1" at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device "Cell A?"
the destination device
an end device**
an intermediate device
a media device
14.
Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?
A, C, D
B, E, G, H
C, D, G, H, I, J
D, E, F, H, I, J
E, F, H, I, J**
15.
Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the green area?
source
end
transfer
**intermediary
16. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.**
The network is administered by a single organization.**
The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection.
The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider.
A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common** organization.
Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP).
17.
Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?
WAN
MAN
**LAN
WLAN
18. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?
path determination and packet switching
data representation, encoding, and control
reliability, flow control, and error detection
**detailing the components that make up the physical link and how to access it
the division of segments into packets
19. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?
manage data flows
**originate data flow
retime and retransmit data signals
determine pathways for data
20. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?
to identify devices on the local media
to identify the hops between source and destination
to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network
to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating
**to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices
21. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
define the structure of layer specific PDU's**
dictate how to accomplish layer functions
**outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
limit hardware compatibility
**require layer dependent encapsulations
eliminate standardization among vendogrs
Network
Transport
Physical**
Data Link**
Session
2. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
supports error detection**
ensures ordered arrival of data
provides delivery to correct destination
identifies the devices on the local network
assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection
3. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
No address is added.
The logical address is added.
The physical address is added.**
The process port number is added.
4. What device is considered an intermediary device?
file server
IP phone
laptop
printer
switch**
5. Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
physical
data link
network**
transport
6. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)
determine pathways for data**
initiate data communications
retime and retransmit data signals**
originate the flow of data
manage data flows**
final termination point for data flow
7. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
the destination device on the local media
the path to use to reach the destination host**
the bits that will be transferred over the media
the source application or process creating the data
8. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?
physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport
application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation
application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network
application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical**
presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application
9.
Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
Network A -- WAN
Network B -- WAN**
Network C -- LAN**
Network B -- MAN
Network C -- WAN
Network A -- LAN**
10. What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)
allows modification of the original data before transmission
identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication**
enables consistent network paths for communication
ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device**
enables the reassembly of complete messages**
tracks delay between end devices
11.
Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?
piping
PDU
streaming
multiplexing**
encapsulation
12. What is a PDU?
corruption of a frame during transmission
data reassembled at the destination
retransmitted packets due to lost communication
a layer specific encapsulation**
13.
the destination device
an end device**
an intermediate device
a media device
14.
A, C, D
B, E, G, H
C, D, G, H, I, J
D, E, F, H, I, J
E, F, H, I, J**
15.
source
end
transfer
**intermediary
16. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.**
The network is administered by a single organization.**
The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection.
The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider.
A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common** organization.
Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP).
17.
WAN
MAN
**LAN
WLAN
18. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?
path determination and packet switching
data representation, encoding, and control
reliability, flow control, and error detection
**detailing the components that make up the physical link and how to access it
the division of segments into packets
19. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?
manage data flows
**originate data flow
retime and retransmit data signals
determine pathways for data
20. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?
to identify devices on the local media
to identify the hops between source and destination
to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network
to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating
**to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices
21. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
define the structure of layer specific PDU's**
dictate how to accomplish layer functions
**outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
limit hardware compatibility
**require layer dependent encapsulations
eliminate standardization among vendogrs
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